a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, not potassium. Therefore, the client needs to be cautious with foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, rather than foods high in potassium. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements regarding Warfarin therapy and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

2. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

4. A client has a new prescription for Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol can cause kidney stones due to the formation of uric acid crystals, so it is crucial for the client to increase their fluid intake. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of kidney stones by diluting the urine and promoting the excretion of uric acid. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake is essential in preventing this adverse effect while taking Allopurinol.

5. A client is starting therapy with raloxifene. Which adverse effect should the client monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hot flashes are a common adverse effect associated with raloxifene therapy. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of SERMs due to their estrogen-like effects on the body. Leg cramps, urinary frequency, and hair loss are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to monitor for hot flashes as part of the medication education.

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