what ecg changes are seen in hypokalemia
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

3. What should be done when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

5. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.

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