ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor serum creatinine
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor urine output
- D. Monitor potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.
2. What is the first action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure?
- A. Administer anticonvulsant medication
- B. Protect the patient's head
- C. Insert an oral airway
- D. Restrain the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action a nurse should take for a patient experiencing a seizure is to protect the patient's head. This is crucial to prevent head injuries during the seizure. Administering anticonvulsant medication may be necessary but is not the first action. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury as the patient may bite down during a seizure. Restraint is not recommended as it can lead to further harm.
3. A client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking fluids during the test.
- B. I will need to drink a sugar solution before the test.
- C. This test will monitor how my baby is responding to contractions.
- D. This test will assess for fetal lung maturity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should drink a sugar solution for a glucose challenge test, which is part of the nonstress test protocol during pregnancy. Choice A is incorrect because adequate hydration is generally recommended before the test. Choice C is incorrect as the nonstress test monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its own movements, not contractions. Choice D is incorrect as the nonstress test does not assess fetal lung maturity.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is taking spironolactone. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 1.9 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Potassium 5.2 mEq/L.' When a client is taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic, monitoring potassium levels is crucial. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is higher than normal and can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, so it should be reported. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not be of immediate concern when assessing a client taking spironolactone.
5. What is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps address hypoxia, a common complication of this condition. Oxygen therapy can improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Administering anticoagulants (Choice B) is a treatment option for confirmed pulmonary embolism but not the initial intervention. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to improve oxygenation in a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism.
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