ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Monitor serum creatinine
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor urine output
- D. Monitor potassium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient's pain level post-surgery?
- A. Use a pain rating scale
- B. Check vital signs
- C. Observe for non-verbal cues
- D. Check for abnormal breath sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Using a pain rating scale is the most appropriate method to assess a patient's pain level post-surgery. Pain rating scales provide a standardized way for patients to communicate their pain intensity, allowing for accurate assessment and effective pain management. Checking vital signs (choice B) is important for monitoring a patient's overall health status but may not directly reflect their pain level. Observing for non-verbal cues (choice C) is valuable, but it may not always provide a clear indication of the pain intensity. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice D) is relevant for assessing respiratory status but does not directly evaluate the patient's pain level.
3. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?
- A. Varicella vaccine.
- B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
- C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
- D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Wound drainage of 30 mL in 8 hours
- D. Warmth and redness in the calf
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Warmth and redness in the calf are indicative of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication post-surgery that requires immediate attention. Reporting this finding promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits for a postoperative client and do not indicate a potentially life-threatening condition like DVT.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and is prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. White blood cell count 8,000/mm3
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- D. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 60 units/L. An elevated AST level indicates liver damage, a side effect of methotrexate, and should be reported. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate potential complications related to methotrexate therapy.
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