a nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis dvt and is receiving heparin therapy which of the following laboratory values indicates th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

3. While caring for a client receiving hemodialysis, which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care when caring for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of bleeding or complications at the access site. Withholding all medications until after dialysis (Choice A) is not necessary unless specified for certain medications. Rehydrating with dextrose 5% in water for hypotension (Choice C) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension related to hemodialysis. Giving an antibiotic 30 minutes before dialysis (Choice D) is not typically indicated unless there is a specific medical indication for prophylactic antibiotic use.

4. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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