Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to the same location each time.
• B. Rotate the patch site daily to avoid skin irritation.
• C. Apply the patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime.
• D. Keep the patch on at all times, even during a bath.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the nitroglycerin transdermal patch in the morning and remove it at bedtime. This schedule helps prevent tolerance to the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be rotated to different sites to prevent skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect as daily rotation is recommended, not daily application to the same site. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should be removed during a bath as it may decrease the efficacy of the medication.

3. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min.
• B. Weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A weight loss of 1.1 kg (2.5 lb) in 24 hours may indicate dehydration or fluid imbalance, which should be reported. This rapid weight loss could be a sign of excessive diuresis, potentially leading to hypovolemia or electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring weight changes is crucial in clients with heart failure receiving diuretics. The other findings are within normal ranges and expected in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure. A heart rate of 80/min, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr are generally acceptable in this scenario.

4. A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about measures to take when caring for a client who is on contact precautions. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Remove the protective gown after leaving the client's room
• B. Place the client in a room with positive pressure
• C. Wear gloves when providing care to the client
• D. Wear a mask when entering the client's room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct measure to include when caring for a client on contact precautions is to wear gloves when providing care. Gloves help prevent the spread of infection and cross-contamination. Choice A is incorrect because the protective gown should be removed before leaving the client's room to prevent the spread of pathogens. Choice B is incorrect as clients on contact precautions should be in a room with negative pressure to prevent the spread of airborne contaminants. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask when changing linens is not specifically required for contact precautions.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?

• A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer IV antibiotics prophylactically.
• C. Change the catheter insertion site every 24 hours.
• D. Monitor the insertion site for redness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.

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