ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?
- A. aPTT 75 seconds.
- B. INR 1.2.
- C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
- D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 6-month-old infant. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to reduce pain at the injection site?
- A. Administer the immunization in the deltoid muscle
- B. Apply a cold compress to the injection site
- C. Apply pressure to the injection site for 5 minutes
- D. Administer a local anesthetic at the injection site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a local anesthetic at the injection site can help reduce pain during immunizations in infants. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering the immunization in the deltoid muscle may not provide pain relief. Applying a cold compress or pressure to the injection site is not as effective as using a local anesthetic to reduce pain.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Joint pain that improves with rest.
- B. Joint stiffness that improves with movement.
- C. Red, warm joints.
- D. Systemic inflammation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In osteoarthritis, joint pain that improves with rest is a common characteristic due to the relief obtained by reducing weight-bearing on the affected joint. Joint stiffness that improves with movement is more indicative of rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Red, warm joints are typically seen in inflammatory arthritis conditions like rheumatoid arthritis, while systemic inflammation is not a primary feature of osteoarthritis.
4. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Check blood pressure
- C. Monitor IV site
- D. Check respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor the IV site. Potassium can be irritating to the veins and may cause phlebitis or infiltration. Monitoring the IV site allows early detection of any potential complications. Checking urine output (Choice A) is important to assess kidney function but is not directly related to monitoring IV potassium. Blood pressure (Choice B) and respiratory rate (Choice D) are essential vital signs to monitor in general patient care but are not specific to monitoring IV potassium administration.
5. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
- C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
- D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.
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