Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• B. This medication may cause your blood pressure to increase.
• C. This medication can cause you to retain fluids.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?

• A. Hyperlipidemia.
• B. COPD.
• C. Seizure disorder.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.

5. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

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