a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.

5. What is the most important assessment for a patient post-op to monitor for complications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor vital signs. Post-operative patients need close monitoring of their vital signs to detect early signs of complications such as changes in blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, and respiratory rate. While monitoring the surgical site is also important for signs of infection, assessing vital signs takes precedence as it provides immediate information about the patient's overall condition. Checking blood glucose levels may be essential for specific patients but is not the primary assessment for monitoring post-op complications. Checking for abnormal breath sounds is important but falls secondary to monitoring vital signs as it indicates respiratory issues rather than providing a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition.

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