a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

2. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: JVD. Jugular venous distention (JVD) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood, leading to congestion and increased venous pressure, which is manifested as JVD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs (choice C) are indicative of pulmonary edema, often seen in left-sided heart failure. Hypotension (choice D) is not typically seen in right-sided heart failure, as it is more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration.

4. A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse's station?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions should be placed closest to the nurse's station for closer monitoring. Clients with bipolar disorder may experience mood swings, including manic episodes that can lead to impulsive behaviors or aggression. Placing such a client near the nurse's station allows for quick intervention and monitoring of their social interactions, especially if they are impaired. The other options, such as anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, and depressive disorder, do not inherently require immediate proximity to the nurse's station based on the information provided.

5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

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