ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips.
- B. Red, swollen gums.
- C. White patches on the tongue.
- D. Pale, dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
2. When using an IV pump for a newly admitted client, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Grasp the IV pump cord when unplugging it from the electrical outlet.
- B. Ensure the pump is plugged into an outlet with two prongs.
- C. Hold the IV pump cord while walking the client.
- D. Check for malfunctioning pump alerts.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an IV pump for a newly admitted client is to hold the IV pump cord while walking the client. This is important for ensuring the safe and secure management of the IV pump during client mobility. Option A is incorrect as grasping the IV pump cord when unplugging it can lead to electrical hazards. Option B is incorrect as ensuring the pump is plugged into an outlet with two prongs is important for electrical safety but not directly related to the nurse's action. Option D is also important but does not directly address the nurse's immediate action while using the IV pump with the client.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
4. What is the primary action when caring for a patient with a stage 3 pressure ulcer?
- A. Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Provide wound debridement
- C. Change the dressing daily
- D. Apply moist gauze to the ulcer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This type of dressing helps maintain a moist environment that is conducive to healing in stage 3 pressure ulcers. Providing wound debridement (choice B) is more suitable for higher stages of pressure ulcers where there is necrotic tissue. Changing the dressing daily (choice C) may be necessary but is not the primary action for a stage 3 pressure ulcer. Applying moist gauze (choice D) is not the recommended approach as it does not provide the same benefits as a hydrocolloid dressing.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mucous membranes
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperreflexia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.
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