a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metoprolol which of the following instructions should the nurse inc
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metoprolol is to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), so it is essential for clients to check their heart rate before each dose. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to adverse effects, so it should not be discontinued suddenly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metoprolol at night to reduce falls. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with metoprolol, affecting its absorption, and should be avoided.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Increased bilirubin levels are expected in clients with cirrhosis due to impaired liver function. Elevated bilirubin levels are commonly seen in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to process bilirubin is compromised. Decreased albumin levels and increased prothrombin time are also associated with cirrhosis, but the most specific finding related to liver dysfunction among the choices provided is increased bilirubin levels. Decreased serum glucose levels are not typically associated with cirrhosis.

3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

4. A client is prescribed albuterol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Albuterol can cause tremors as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness and preparedness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, limiting caffeine intake, or taking it at bedtime are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of albuterol like tremors.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.

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