a nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints which of the following guidelines should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

3. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the fingers. Tingling in the fingers is a common sign of hypocalcemia, often seen after a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage or removal of the parathyroid glands which regulate calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia but is usually assessed as facial muscle twitching, not tingling in the fingers. Positive Kernig's sign is a test for meningitis, not related to hypocalcemia.

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