a nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints which of the following guidelines should the nurse include
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ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clay-colored stools are a classic finding in a client with cirrhosis. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired bile flow, resulting in pale or clay-colored stools due to a lack of bilirubin in the stool. Hypertension, stridor, and elevated temperature are not typically associated with cirrhosis. Hypertension may occur in cirrhosis but is not a consistent finding, stridor is more commonly associated with upper airway obstruction, and elevated temperature may indicate an infection rather than a direct result of cirrhosis.

4. A client with heart failure is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I will reduce my intake of processed meats.' This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching because processed meats are high in sodium, which can worsen heart failure due to fluid retention. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of reducing sodium intake, which is crucial for clients with heart failure. Increasing canned vegetable intake (A) may not always be advisable due to potential high sodium content in canned products. Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams daily (B) is a good practice, but it's more specific to sodium restriction rather than addressing the source of sodium like processed meats. Increasing whole grains (C) is generally beneficial but does not directly relate to reducing sodium intake in heart failure clients.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metoprolol is to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), so it is essential for clients to check their heart rate before each dose. Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping metoprolol can lead to adverse effects, so it should not be discontinued suddenly. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metoprolol at night to reduce falls. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with metoprolol, affecting its absorption, and should be avoided.

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