ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the priority intervention when continuous bubbling is observed in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?
- A. Check for an air leak
- B. Continue monitoring as it is not normal
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Tighten the tube connections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for an air leak.' Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Checking for an air leak is crucial to prevent respiratory complications. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and requires immediate intervention to address the air leak. Choice C is incorrect as replacing the entire chest tube system is not the initial priority when an air leak is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because tightening tube connections may not address the underlying issue of an air leak and should not be the initial action taken in this situation.
2. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
- B. Sudden onset of seizures
- C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
- D. Loss of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.
3. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Immunosuppressant medications need to be taken for up to 1 year
- B. Shortness of breath might be an indication of transplant rejection
- C. The surgical site will heal in 3 to 4 weeks after surgery
- D. Begin 45 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise per day following discharge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Shortness of breath is an important sign of transplant rejection. Other manifestations of rejection include fatigue, edema, bradycardia, and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Immunosuppressant medications are typically required for life, not just up to 1 year. C) The surgical site healing time can vary and may take longer than 3 to 4 weeks. D) Starting a specific exercise regimen should be individualized and guided by healthcare providers; a general recommendation like 45 minutes of exercise per day may not be suitable for all heart transplant recipients.
5. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large meals before bedtime
- C. Consume liquids with meals
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. Mint and spicy foods can aggravate GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and increasing stomach acid production, leading to acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms as lying down can promote acid reflux. Consuming liquids with meals can also exacerbate GERD by increasing stomach distension and pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Eating three large meals per day can overload the stomach and trigger acid reflux episodes in patients with GERD.
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