ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.
2. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Maintain IV access
- B. Obtain the client's vital signs
- C. Contact the provider
- D. Stop the transfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.
3. What intervention is needed for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Replace the chest tube
- C. Clamp the chest tube
- D. Continue to monitor the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps prevent air leaks and ensures the proper functioning of the chest tube. Choice B, replacing the chest tube, is not necessary as tightening the connections should be attempted first. Clamping the chest tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action may result in worsening of the air leak. Therefore, the priority intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system.
4. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.
5. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.
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