ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What lab value should be prioritized for monitoring in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin levels
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it reflects the status of their immune system. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of severe immunocompromise, necessitating close monitoring and potential intervention. Choices B, C, and D are less specific to HIV management and do not directly reflect the immune status in these patients. Hemoglobin levels are more relevant for assessing anemia, serum albumin levels for nutritional status, and white blood cell count for overall immune response, but none are as directly tied to HIV disease progression as the CD4 T-cell count.
2. During a clinical assessment of a 68-year-old client who has suffered a head injury, a neurologist suspects that the client has sustained damage to her vagus nerve (CN X). Which assessment finding is most likely to lead the physician to this conclusion?
- A. The client has difficulty swallowing.
- B. The client has loss of gag reflex.
- C. The client has an inability to smell.
- D. The client has impaired eye movement.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Damage to the vagus nerve can result in the loss of the gag reflex, which is a key indicator for the neurologist. Difficulty swallowing (Choice A) is more associated with issues related to the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) and hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). An inability to smell (Choice C) is related to the olfactory nerve (CN I), and impaired eye movement (Choice D) is typically associated with damage to the oculomotor nerve (CN III), trochlear nerve (CN IV), or abducens nerve (CN VI), not the vagus nerve.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The healthcare provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in individuals with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in the veins, and estrogen therapy can exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Therefore, caution is advised when considering estrogen therapy in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and dysfunctional uterine bleeding may actually be conditions for which estrogen therapy is indicated. Osteoporosis can also be managed with estrogen therapy in certain cases to help prevent bone density loss.
4. By which age should the nurse expect that an infant will be able to pull to a standing position?
- A. 5 to 6 months
- B. 7 to 8 months
- C. 11 to 12 months
- D. 14 to 15 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pulling to a standing position typically occurs between 11 to 12 months, marking the progression towards walking.
5. A Nurse Manager completes an interruption log and identifies two staff members who take an inordinate amount of time with drop-in issues that are not urgent. What are some methods to address this behavior in an attempt to better manage time? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Designate specific time slots for drop-in visits.
- B. Position the desk chair so it is not facing the hallway.
- C. Communicate with staff about using e-mail for non-urgent matters to improve time management.
- D. When staff members drop in, the manager should stand and remain standing during the conversation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Designating specific time slots for drop-in visits helps in managing interruptions effectively by consolidating them into designated periods. This approach allows the Nurse Manager to allocate focused time for addressing these issues without disrupting workflow. Option B, repositioning the desk chair, is not a standard strategy for managing time or interruptions. Option C, promoting the use of e-mail for non-urgent matters, may help in some cases but may not entirely address the behavior of extended drop-in visits. Option D, standing during conversations, may not be practical for longer discussions and does not provide a structured approach to address time management issues.
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