ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading?
- A. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
- B. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action when the nurse administers insulin for a misread blood glucose reading is to monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. Insulin administration based on a misread blood glucose could lead to hypoglycemia due to an unnecessary dose. Monitoring for signs of hypoglycemia is crucial for prompt intervention if blood glucose levels drop dangerously low. Option B, monitoring for hyperglycemia, is incorrect in this situation as the concern is over-treatment with insulin causing hypoglycemia. Option C, administering glucose IV, is only necessary if hypoglycemia occurs. Option D, documenting the incident, is important for reporting and learning purposes but is not the immediate priority when the focus is on patient safety and preventing complications.
2. What is the priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain IV access
- C. Check the patient's cardiac enzymes
- D. Administer aspirin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing action when a patient with chest pain presents with possible acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing cardiac workload, and improving blood supply to the heart muscle, thus relieving pain and enhancing blood flow to the heart. While obtaining IV access is important for administering medications and fluids, it is not the priority over addressing pain and improving blood flow. Checking the patient's cardiac enzymes is crucial for diagnosis and ongoing management but not the immediate priority when the patient is in pain. Administering aspirin is also a vital intervention in acute coronary syndrome, but in this scenario, it is not the priority action compared to providing immediate pain relief and enhancing blood flow to the heart.
3. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?
- A. Limit protein intake
- B. Limit potassium intake
- C. Restrict sodium intake
- D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?
- A. Low potassium diet
- B. High fiber diet
- C. Low fat diet
- D. Low sodium diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Low fat diet. A low-fat diet is recommended for clients with chronic cholecystitis to reduce episodes of biliary colic. High-fat foods can trigger symptoms by causing the gallbladder to contract, leading to pain. Choice A, a low potassium diet, is not specifically indicated for chronic cholecystitis. Choice B, a high fiber diet, though generally healthy, may worsen symptoms in some individuals with cholecystitis due to the increased intestinal gas production. Choice D, a low sodium diet, is not directly related to the management of chronic cholecystitis.
5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on the ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments on the ECG
- C. Widened QRS complex
- D. Prominent U waves on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.
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