ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
- B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
- C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
- D. Verify the prescription with the provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to verify the prescription with the provider. This is crucial to prevent injury from fluid volume overload and rapid potassium infusion. Verifying the prescription ensures that the correct solution, rate, and additives are ordered according to the client's condition. While evaluating the patency of the IV is important, verifying the prescription takes precedence to ensure patient safety. Consulting with the pharmacist can be beneficial, but confirming the prescription with the provider is the immediate priority. Teaching the client about IV extravasation is important but is not the first action the nurse should take in this scenario.
2. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and infection
- D. Muscle weakness and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.
3. What intervention is required when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the appropriate intervention. This action can often resolve an air leak, which is the common cause of continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing it is not recommended as the first-line intervention because it may lead to complications or unnecessary tube changes. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without addressing the air leak would delay necessary corrective action, potentially causing respiratory compromise in the patient. Therefore, tightening the connections of the chest tube system is the most suitable initial step to manage continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
4. A nurse at a provider's office is interviewing a client who has multiple sclerosis and has been taking dantrolene for several months. Which of the following client statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?
- A. I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.
- B. I haven't gotten any colds, even though it is flu season.
- C. I feel like my nerve pain has improved.
- D. It is easier to urinate now.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I don't have muscle spasms as frequently.' Dantrolene is a medication that relaxes skeletal muscles and is commonly prescribed to treat muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Therefore, a reduction in muscle spasms frequency would be an indication of the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dantrolene is not indicated for preventing colds, improving nerve pain, or easing urination. The focus should be on the medication's intended purpose, which is to address muscle spasms in clients with multiple sclerosis.
5. What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Hemoglobin levels
- D. Serum albumin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.
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