a patient is diagnosed with gerd what recommendations should the nurse provide
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What recommendations should the nurse provide to a patient diagnosed with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid items like mint that increase gastric acid secretion.' Mint can relax the lower esophageal sphincter, leading to increased gastric acid secretion and worsening GERD symptoms. Choice B is a good recommendation for GERD management as it helps prevent excessive stomach distension. Choice C is also a recommended practice to avoid reflux during sleep. Choice D, avoiding black and red pepper, is not directly linked to exacerbating GERD symptoms, so it is not the most relevant recommendation for a patient diagnosed with GERD.

2. What are the early symptoms of compartment syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness.' Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. Early symptoms include unrelieved pain (out of proportion to the injury), pallor (pale skin color), and pulselessness (decreased or absent pulses). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the classic early symptoms of compartment syndrome.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

4. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering diuretics is a crucial intervention for a client with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis as it helps reduce edema by increasing urine output and managing symptoms of glomerulonephritis. Encouraging a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended in this case because it can put additional stress on the kidneys. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may worsen edema in these clients. Weighing the client twice a week (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid balance but is not as immediate and directly beneficial as administering diuretics.

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