Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

2. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should not wash my hair prior to the procedure.
• B. I will receive a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.
• C. I should avoid eating prior to the procedure.
• D. I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.

3. What are the expected findings in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Seizures and confusion
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia is commonly associated with cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining proper electrical conduction in the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, the most critical and life-threatening manifestation is cardiac dysrhythmias. Seizures and confusion are more commonly associated with other electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Bradycardia is not a typical finding in hypokalemia, as it tends to cause tachycardia or other arrhythmias.

4. What is the initial nursing action for a patient with a chest tube found to have an air leak?

• A. Check the tube connections
• B. Replace the chest tube
• C. Remove and reinsert the chest tube
• D. Document the incident

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient with a chest tube is found to have an air leak, the priority action for the nurse is to check the tube connections. This step helps identify the source of the air leak, which can be caused by loose or disconnected tube connections. Once the source of the leak is identified and addressed, further interventions may be necessary. Replacing or removing and reinserting the chest tube should not be the initial response unless there are specific indications for these actions. Documenting the incident is important but comes after addressing the immediate concern of the air leak.

5. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Eat large meals before bed
• C. Increase fluid intake during meals
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These foods can trigger symptoms of GERD and lead to acid reflux. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bed can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of acid reflux during sleep. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach, leading to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice D is also incorrect because while milk may provide temporary relief for some individuals, it is not a recommended long-term solution for managing GERD.

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