Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.

2. When caring for a patient with hypokalemia, what should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for muscle weakness
• B. Check for cardiac dysrhythmias
• C. Monitor for bradycardia
• D. Monitor for seizures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Answer: Muscle weakness is a common sign of hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for muscle weakness as potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, bradycardia, and even seizures in severe cases, muscle weakness is a more common and specific sign directly related to potassium levels.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place several pillows behind the client's head
• B. Place the client in a Sim's position
• C. Keep the client's neck in a midline position
• D. Maintain flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the client's neck in a midline position is crucial for managing increased intracranial pressure. This position helps optimize blood flow and minimizes the risk of further increasing ICP. Placing several pillows behind the client's head (Choice A) may inadvertently elevate the head, potentially worsening ICP. Placing the client in a Sim's position (Choice B) or maintaining flexion of the client's hips at a 90° angle (Choice D) are not directly related to managing increased ICP.

4. What should the healthcare provider do first when a patient is admitted with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Get IV access
• C. Auscultate heart sounds
• D. Obtain cardiac enzymes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority intervention when a patient presents with chest pain and suspected acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. It is crucial to address the pain and potential ischemia promptly to prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Getting IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important assessments and interventions, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in managing acute coronary syndrome.

5. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Limit sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day
• C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
• D. Increase protein intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.

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