ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?
- A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Serum albumin levels
- D. Hemoglobin levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values in HIV management. While white blood cell count, serum albumin levels, and hemoglobin levels are important, they do not directly reflect the immune status and progression of HIV as the CD4 T-cell count does.
2. A client is scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) and a nurse is providing teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should not wash my hair prior to the procedure.
- B. I will receive a sedative 1 hour before the procedure.
- C. I should avoid eating prior to the procedure.
- D. I will be exposed to flashes of light during the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that flashes of light or pictures are often used during the procedure to assess the brain's response to stimuli. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because washing hair, receiving a sedative, and avoiding eating are not directly related to the EEG procedure.
3. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. Normal chest tube function
- C. A blockage in the chest tube
- D. A malfunction in the drainage system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This bubbling occurs when air leaks from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system. It is essential to address this issue promptly to prevent complications like a pneumothorax. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is not indicative of normal chest tube function, a blockage in the chest tube, or a malfunction in the drainage system.
4. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.
5. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.
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