ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?
- A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
- B. Crepitus around the insertion site
- C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
- D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.
2. What ECG changes are seen with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early ECG sign of hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, leading to changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and ultimately sine wave pattern. Elevated ST segments, prominent U waves, and widened QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?
- A. Low sodium diet
- B. Potassium restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.
4. A client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia should increase the consumption of which of the following foods?
- A. Yogurt
- B. Apples
- C. Raisins
- D. Cheddar cheese
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Raisins. Raisins are a good source of iron, making them beneficial for a client at high risk for iron deficiency anemia. Yogurt (Choice A), apples (Choice B), and cheddar cheese (Choice D) are not significant sources of iron. Other iron-rich foods include dried fruits, red meat, and green leafy vegetables.
5. What are the signs of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, pulselessness
- B. Muscle weakness, hyporeflexia
- C. Pins-and-needles sensation, swelling
- D. Severe swelling and tightness in the affected extremity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness due to increased pressure within a muscle compartment. Choice B, muscle weakness, and hyporeflexia are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Choice C, pins-and-needles sensation and swelling, are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Choice D, severe swelling and tightness in the affected extremity, could be seen in compartment syndrome but are not the primary signs.
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