ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2
1. What is the primary role of albumin in the blood?
- A. Transport oxygen throughout the body.
- B. Serve as a key clotting factor.
- C. Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance.
- D. Act as an immune response molecule.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure by helping to retain fluid within the blood vessels. This function is essential for regulating blood volume and preventing fluid from leaking out into tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because albumin is not primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, acting as a clotting factor, or functioning as an immune response molecule in the blood.
2. A nurse working in a busy orthopedic clinic is asked to perform the Tinel sign on a client having problems in her hand/wrist. In order to test Tinel sign, the nurse should give the client which direction?
- A. Stand tall, arms at your side, shut your eyes; place the tip of your index finger to your nose.
- B. Hold your wrist in complete flexion, keep it in this position for 60 seconds. How does your hand feel after placing it in a neutral position?
- C. I'm going to tap (percuss) over the median nerve in your wrist; tell me what sensation you feel while I am doing this. Does the sensation stay in the wrist or go anywhere else?
- D. I'm going to tap this tuning fork; place it on the side of your thumb, then tell me what you are feeling in your hand and wrist.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The Tinel sign involves percussing over the median nerve in the wrist to test for carpal tunnel syndrome. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different action unrelated to the Tinel sign. Choice B is also incorrect as it involves holding the wrist in flexion, which is not part of the Tinel sign assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions using a tuning fork on the thumb, which is not the correct technique for assessing the Tinel sign.
3. When teaching a young woman about the use of hormonal contraceptives, a nurse should emphasize that these drugs are most effective when taken:
- A. Immediately after sexual intercourse.
- B. At the same time each day.
- C. Before going to bed at night.
- D. On an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each day.' Hormonal contraceptives should be taken consistently at the same time each day to maintain stable hormone levels, which is crucial for their effectiveness. Taking them at random times can increase the risk of contraceptive failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking hormonal contraceptives immediately after sexual intercourse, before going to bed at night, or on an empty stomach does not align with the recommended usage instructions for these drugs.
4. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?
- A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
- B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
- C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
- D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.
5. Which of the following disorders is more likely to be associated with blood in the stool?
- A. Gastroesophageal reflux
- B. Crohn's disease
- C. Irritable bowel syndrome
- D. Colon cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Colon cancer. Colon cancer commonly presents with blood in the stool due to bleeding from the tumor. Gastroesophageal reflux (Choice A) is associated with heartburn and regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus. Crohn's disease (Choice B) is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can cause symptoms like abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss, but it does not typically present with blood in the stool as a primary symptom. Irritable bowel syndrome (Choice C) is a functional gastrointestinal disorder characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits, but it does not usually involve blood in the stool as a prominent feature.
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