Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

• A. Increased risk of severe infection
• B. Increased risk of anemia
• C. Increased risk of bleeding
• D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

2. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?

• A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
• B. Consume liquids between meals
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.

3. A patient reports abdominal cramping during an enema administration. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the flow of the enema
• B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
• C. Stop the enema procedure
• D. Remove the enema tubing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during an enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the container helps to relieve cramping by slowing the flow of the solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow (Choice A) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure (Choice C) may not be necessary if adjusting the height resolves the issue. Removing the enema tubing (Choice D) is not the initial action indicated for cramping; adjusting the height is the more appropriate intervention.

4. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
• B. Sudden onset of seizures
• C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
• D. Loss of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

5. What ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct ECG change associated with hyperkalemia is ST depression. Hyperkalemia typically presents with ECG changes such as peaked T waves, prolonged PR interval, widened QRS complex, and finally, ST segment depression. Flattened T waves are more commonly associated with hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are seen in hypokalemia as well. Elevated ST segments are not a typical ECG finding in hyperkalemia.

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