what is the primary concern for a patient with a cd4 t cell count below 180 cellsmm3

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mmÂ³?

A. Increased risk of severe infection
B. Increased risk of anemia
C. Increased risk of bleeding
D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mmÂ³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

2. What is the priority action if a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose?

A. Check the patient's blood glucose level
B. Administer IV dextrose
C. Document the incident
D. Continue monitoring the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action when a patient experiences hypoglycemia after an insulin dose is to check the patient's blood glucose level. This is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. While administering IV dextrose may be necessary if the patient's blood glucose level is critically low, confirming hypoglycemia is essential to guide appropriate interventions. Documenting the incident is important for documentation purposes but is not the immediate priority when the patient's safety is at risk. Continuing to monitor the patient is essential, but it should follow the confirmation and initial management of hypoglycemia.

3. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
D. Increase the flow of the enema solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

4. What are the early symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and swelling
D. Numbness and tingling

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness.' Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. Early symptoms include unrelieved pain (out of proportion to the injury), pallor (pale skin color), and pulselessness (decreased or absent pulses). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the classic early symptoms of compartment syndrome.

5. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

A. Flattened T waves
B. Prominent U waves
C. Elevated ST segments
D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.