Nursing Elites

1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?

• A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
• B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
• C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
• D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.

2. What are the expected manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Loss of sensation in the affected extremity
• C. Sudden loss of consciousness
• D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. Thrombotic strokes are caused by a clot forming in a blood vessel supplying the brain, leading to a gradual onset of symptoms due to impaired blood flow to specific brain regions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of sensation, sudden loss of consciousness, seizures, and convulsions are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes. In a thrombotic stroke, the symptoms develop slowly over time, often over minutes to hours, and include manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body, along with other symptoms related to the affected brain area.

3. What is the priority lab value to monitor in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
• B. White blood cell count 4,500/mm3
• C. Potassium levels 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin levels below 12g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV to assess the status of their immune system. A CD4 count of 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and a high risk of opportunistic infections. This value is used to guide treatment decisions and assess the need for prophylaxis against specific infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring white blood cell count, potassium levels, and hemoglobin levels, although important in HIV patients, are not as crucial as monitoring the CD4 T-cell count for assessing immune function and disease progression.

4. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Apply a dry dressing
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.

5. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
• C. Increase sodium intake
• D. Avoid potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.

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