ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Pacing
- D. Medication administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synchronized cardioversion. In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias where there is a pulse present. Defibrillation (choice B) is used in emergencies for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is more suitable for bradycardias or certain conduction abnormalities. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in stable cases or as an adjunct to other treatments, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
2. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1.5 g/kg/day
- C. Restrict sodium intake to 1 g/day
- D. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease. Excess phosphorus can lead to complications such as bone and heart issues in these patients. Increasing protein intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended as it can lead to increased waste production that the kidneys may struggle to eliminate. Restricting sodium intake (Choice C) is important for managing blood pressure, but the recommendation is usually higher than 1 g/day. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not typically advised in patients with kidney disease, as they often need to limit potassium due to impaired kidney function.
3. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
- C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
- D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.
5. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with GERD?
- A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
- B. Eat large meals before bed
- C. Increase fluid intake during meals
- D. Drink milk as a snack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These foods can trigger symptoms of GERD and lead to acid reflux. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bed can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing the likelihood of acid reflux during sleep. Choice C is incorrect as increasing fluid intake during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by distending the stomach, leading to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice D is also incorrect because while milk may provide temporary relief for some individuals, it is not a recommended long-term solution for managing GERD.
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