Nursing Elites

1. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Loss of motor function with nausea
• D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.

2. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST depression
• C. Prominent U waves
• D. Elevated ST segments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

3. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

• A. Synchronized cardioversion
• B. Defibrillation
• C. Pacing
• D. Medication administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Synchronized cardioversion. In ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat tachyarrhythmias where there is a pulse present. Defibrillation (choice B) is used in emergencies for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is more suitable for bradycardias or certain conduction abnormalities. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in stable cases or as an adjunct to other treatments, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. Drainage in the chest tube
• C. A blocked chest tube
• D. Normal chest tube function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.

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