what should the nurse monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Muscle weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
D. Position the client on their side during a seizure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.

3. What dietary recommendations should a patient with GERD follow?

A. Avoid mint and spicy foods
B. Consume liquids between meals
C. Eat three large meals per day
D. Drink milk as a snack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients with GERD should follow dietary recommendations to manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid mint and spicy foods,' is the correct answer. Mint and spicy foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B, 'Consume liquids between meals,' is not the best recommendation as consuming liquids during meals can worsen GERD symptoms by increasing stomach pressure. Choice C, 'Eat three large meals per day,' is incorrect as large meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms; instead, smaller, more frequent meals are recommended. Choice D, 'Drink milk as a snack,' is not ideal as full-fat dairy products like milk can trigger acid reflux in some individuals. Therefore, the best recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods.

4. What intervention should the nurse take for a patient experiencing delayed wound healing?

A. Monitor serum albumin levels
B. Apply a dry dressing
C. Administer antibiotics
D. Change the wound dressing every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial for patients with delayed wound healing. Low albumin levels indicate a lack of protein, which can impair the healing process and increase the risk of infection. By monitoring serum albumin levels, the nurse can assess the patient's nutritional status and make necessary interventions to promote wound healing. Applying a dry dressing (Choice B) may be appropriate depending on the wound characteristics, but it does not address the underlying cause of delayed healing. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for delayed wound healing unless there is an active infection present. Changing the wound dressing every 8 hours (Choice D) may lead to excessive disruption of the wound bed and hinder the healing process.

5. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

A. Increased risk of severe infection
B. Increased risk of anemia
C. Increased risk of bleeding
D. Increased risk of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.