what should the nurse monitor for in a patient with compartment syndrome

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What should be monitored for in a patient with compartment syndrome?

A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
B. Localized redness and swelling
C. Fever and infection
D. Muscle weakness and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome that indicate inadequate blood flow to the affected area. These symptoms are crucial to monitor as they signify a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling may be present but are not the primary indicators. Fever and infection are also not specific to compartment syndrome, and muscle weakness and fatigue are not typically prominent symptoms of this condition.

2. What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

A. Monitor for signs of infection
B. Monitor for anemia
C. Monitor for dehydration
D. Monitor for bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

3. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

A. An air leak
B. A blocked chest tube
C. Normal chest tube function
D. Continuous drainage from the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak in the system. This occurs when air is entering the system through a leak, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B, a blocked chest tube, is incorrect as a blocked tube would result in a lack of drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect as continuous bubbling signifies an issue. Choice D, continuous drainage from the chest tube, is incorrect as bubbling in the water seal chamber specifically indicates an air leak, not just the presence of drainage.

4. What signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
B. Sudden onset of seizures
C. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
D. Loss of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These symptoms occur due to the brain's increased pressure within the skull. Sudden onset of seizures (Choice B) is not typically associated with increased intracranial pressure. Bradycardia and altered pupil response (Choice C) are signs of advanced or worsening IICP. Loss of consciousness (Choice D) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure.

5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A. Early menopause
B. History of falls
C. African American race
D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.