ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat three large meals daily
- B. Consume high-calorie foods
- C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
- D. Drink fluids during meal time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Distended, board-like abdomen
- B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
- C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.
3. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase potassium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
4. What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- B. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- C. Continue the enema at a slower rate
- D. Increase the flow of the enema solution
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.
5. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.
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