ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Eat three large meals daily
- B. Consume high-calorie foods
- C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
- D. Drink fluids during meal time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.
2. A client who has burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.
- B. Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.
- C. Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.
- D. It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals who have burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, shared experiences, and coping strategies for accepting their altered appearance. Choice A is not the best response as it does not offer proactive support. Choice B is not appropriate as the timing of cosmetic surgery should be determined by healthcare providers, not immediate. Choice C is misleading as reconstructive surgery may improve appearance but may not completely restore the previous look.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. Distended, board-like abdomen
- B. WBC count of 15,000/mm3
- C. Rebound tenderness over McBurney's point
- D. Temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen should be reported to the provider immediately because it indicates peritonitis, a serious complication of appendicitis resulting from a ruptured appendix. Option B, an elevated WBC count, may indicate infection but is not as urgent as a board-like abdomen. Option C, rebound tenderness over McBurney's point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate immediate life-threatening complications. Option D, a slightly elevated temperature, is not as concerning as a distended, board-like abdomen.
4. What are the expected signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe headache and confusion
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Bradycardia and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, confusion, irritability. These are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) and require prompt intervention. Restlessness, confusion, and irritability are indicative of the brain's attempt to compensate for the rising pressure. Choice B is incorrect because severe headache alone is not specific to IICP and can be present in various conditions. Choice C is incorrect because elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP; instead, hypertension may be present in the compensatory stage. Choice D is incorrect as bradycardia and altered pupil response are signs of advanced IICP, not early signs. Monitoring and recognizing these early signs are crucial for timely intervention and preventing further complications.
5. How does hyponatremia place the patient at risk?
- A. Seizures
- B. Fatigue
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hyponatremia places the patient at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. While hyponatremia can lead to seizures due to cerebral edema caused by fluid imbalance, the most immediate and life-threatening risk is cardiac dysrhythmias. Low sodium levels can disrupt the heart's electrical activity, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias. Although fatigue and muscle weakness are symptoms of hyponatremia, cardiac dysrhythmias pose the most critical concern as they can have severe consequences.
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