Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat three large meals daily
• B. Consume high-calorie foods
• C. Limit caffeinated drinks to two per day
• D. Drink fluids during meal time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach putting pressure on the diaphragm. Choice C is incorrect because caffeinated drinks can contribute to dehydration, which is not ideal for clients with COPD. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can cause bloating and early satiety, making it difficult for clients to consume enough calories.

2. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain IV access
• B. Obtain the client's vital signs
• C. Contact the provider
• D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.

3. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Replace the chest tube system
• D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.

4. What are the expected changes on an ECG for a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. ST elevation
• D. Wide QRS complexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily manifests as flattened T waves on an ECG. While prominent U waves can be seen in hypokalemia, they are not as specific as flattened T waves. ST elevation is more commonly associated with conditions like myocardial infarction rather than hypokalemia. Wide QRS complexes are typically not a feature of hypokalemia on an ECG.

5. A patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is asking for dietary recommendations. What should the nurse suggest?

• A. Limit protein intake
• B. Limit potassium intake
• C. Restrict sodium intake
• D. Limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, it is crucial to limit phosphorus intake to 700mg/day to manage their condition. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications such as bone and heart problems. Limiting protein intake is essential in later stages of kidney disease, particularly in dialysis patients to reduce the buildup of waste products. While limiting potassium and restricting sodium intake are also important in kidney disease management, the priority for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to control phosphorus levels.

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