what are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What are the expected findings in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. In a thrombotic stroke, a blood clot forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to reduced blood flow to a specific area of the brain. This results in a gradual onset of neurological deficits, such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache and vomiting, and loss of sensation in the affected limb are more commonly associated with other types of strokes or medical conditions, not specifically thrombotic strokes. Thrombotic strokes typically present with gradual symptoms due to the gradual blockage of blood flow, leading to a progressive neurological deficit.

2. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.

3. What should a healthcare professional do if a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the healthcare professional should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema solution, making it more comfortable for the patient. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases, but it should not be the first step when cramping occurs. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice C) may exacerbate the cramping, so it is not the best course of action. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice D) will likely worsen the cramping and should be avoided.

4. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

5. What is the preferred treatment for a patient with unstable angina admitted with chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart, relieving chest pain, and preventing cardiac tissue damage. Establishing IV access (choice B) is important but not the preferred initial treatment for unstable angina with chest pain. Auscultating heart sounds (choice C) and obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice D) are relevant assessments but do not address the immediate symptomatic relief needed for a patient with unstable angina and chest pain.

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