ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the pharmacological class of Lithium?
- A. Antidiabetics, biguanides
- B. Mood stabilizers
- C. Antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants
- D. Vascular headache suppressants
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Lithium is classified as a mood stabilizer due to its primary use in managing bipolar disorder, where it helps stabilize mood swings and prevent episodes of mania and depression. While it can have other effects on the body, its main therapeutic role lies in its mood-stabilizing properties. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as lithium is not classified as antidiabetics, biguanides, antiarrhythmics, anticonvulsants, or vascular headache suppressants. Its main pharmacological class is mood stabilizers.
2. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- C. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client on Labetalol is to avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that, if abruptly stopped, can lead to rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. It is essential for patients to taper off this medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects.
3. A client has a new prescription for Etanercept for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to get my blood drawn periodically while on this medication.
- B. I should stop taking this medication if I develop a rash.
- C. I will need to limit my alcohol intake to no more than one drink per week.
- D. I should self-administer this medication subcutaneously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Etanercept can cause bone marrow suppression, so it is crucial to monitor blood counts regularly to detect any early signs of adverse effects.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication undiluted.
- B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
- C. Administer the medication through a central line.
- D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.
5. A client is receiving discharge instructions for a new prescription of Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should be included?
- A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
- C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- D. Decrease your intake of protein.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Prednisone, there is a risk of potassium depletion due to the medication. Therefore, it is essential to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach to help maintain adequate potassium levels in the body and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels. Choice B and D are incorrect as there is no specific need to increase dairy products or decrease protein intake with Prednisone. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding foods high in vitamin K is more relevant for clients taking anticoagulants like warfarin.
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