ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent these adverse effects by allowing the body to adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the risk of significant blood pressure drops upon standing up quickly.
2. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Thrombocyte count.
- B. Hematocrit.
- C. Amylase.
- D. Liver function tests.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.
3. A client has been prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid activities that may cause injury.
- C. Monitor your heart rate daily before taking the medication.
- D. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed an anticoagulant for atrial fibrillation is to avoid activities that may cause injury. Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding, so it is important to prevent situations that could lead to injury or trauma. Choice A is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically affected by food intake. Choice C is not necessary for all anticoagulant medications, and heart rate monitoring is more relevant for other conditions. Choice D is not directly related to the action of anticoagulants and is not a priority instruction for this medication.
4. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?
- A. Serum sodium
- B. Serum lithium
- C. Serum potassium
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.
5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Calcium carbonate
- C. Acetaminophen
- D. Ranitidine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, so Vitamin K intake should be consistent but not excessive. Calcium carbonate and ranitidine do not significantly increase the risk of bleeding when used concurrently with Warfarin.
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