Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
• C. Change positions slowly.
• D. Take this medication with meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and falls. Instructing the client to change positions slowly helps prevent these adverse effects by allowing the body to adjust to postural changes gradually, reducing the risk of significant blood pressure drops upon standing up quickly.

2. How is lithium typically administered?

• A. Intravenously
• B. Intramuscularly
• C. Orally
• D. Sublingually

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lithium is typically administered orally to ensure proper absorption and distribution in the body. By taking lithium orally, it allows the medication to be absorbed through the gastrointestinal tract and distributed effectively. Intravenous and intramuscular routes are not commonly used for lithium administration as they can lead to rapid, unpredictable absorption and increase the risk of toxicity. Sublingual administration is also not the typical route for lithium, as it is usually taken orally for consistent and controlled absorption.

3. While caring for a client taking Propylthiouracil, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is taking Propylthiouracil, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as it is an adverse effect of this medication. Propylthiouracil can lead to a decrease in heart rate, which is known as bradycardia. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. The other options, such as insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss, are not commonly associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for monitoring while the client is on this medication.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

5. Following a stroke, a client has been started on clopidogrel (Plavix). Why is this medication being administered?

• A. To prevent stroke in high-risk patients, such as those with prosthetic heart valves
• B. To decrease blood pressure
• C. To increase heart rate
• D. To provide antiplatelet activity in patients who cannot tolerate aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots. It is commonly used in patients who have had a stroke and cannot tolerate aspirin due to allergies or intolerances. Choosing clopidogrel in these cases helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of recurrent strokes.

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