ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum glucose. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring serum glucose levels is essential to assess for elevated blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as Prednisone does not directly affect potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.
2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
- C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
- D. Swallow the tablet with water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.
3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects.
4. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Captopril
- C. Ranolazine
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.
5. A hospitalized client has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should be prepared for transfusion?
- A. Whole blood
- B. Platelets
- C. Fresh frozen plasma
- D. Packed red blood cells
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the appropriate blood product for a client with an elevated aPTT as it contains various coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathies and prevent bleeding. Elevated aPTT indicates a deficiency in specific clotting factors, and fresh frozen plasma is rich in these factors. Whole blood, platelets, and packed red blood cells do not contain the necessary coagulation factors to correct an elevated aPTT, so they are not indicated in this situation.
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