Nursing Elites

1. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.

2. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?

• A. Reduced cardiac function
• B. First-pass effect
• C. Reduced hepatic function
• D. Increased gastric motility

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.

3. A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Lithium
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It belongs to the class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which work by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain to produce a calming effect. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, not typically used for anxiety or panic attacks. Lithium is primarily used to treat bipolar disorder, not anxiety. Spironolactone is a diuretic primarily used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, not anxiety or panic attacks.

4. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. I will follow a low-sodium diet while taking this medication.
• C. I need to discontinue this medication slowly.
• D. I should not crush this medication before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.

5. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may develop a cough while taking this medication.
• B. You should stop taking this medication if you develop a rash.
• C. This medication cannot be given orally.
• D. This medication may cause your urine to turn yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A rash can indicate an allergic reaction to ceftriaxone, which should be reported to the provider. It is crucial to instruct the client to discontinue the medication and seek medical attention if a rash develops to prevent potential serious adverse effects. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough is not a common side effect of ceftriaxone, ceftriaxone is typically administered parenterally, and a yellow discoloration of urine is a harmless side effect due to the color of the medication itself, respectively.

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