Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with methotrexate. Which of the following supplements should the nurse instruct the client to take?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Calcium
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take folic acid when receiving treatment with methotrexate to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Methotrexate acts as a folic acid antagonist, leading to folic acid deficiency, which can be counteracted by supplementing with folic acid. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended to counteract methotrexate effects and do not play a significant role in mitigating methotrexate toxicity.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

3. Which of the following drugs has a therapeutic effect that prevents thromboembolic events?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Amlodipine
• C. Nitroglycerin
• D. Clopidogrel

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that helps prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used to reduce the risk of strokes or heart attacks in patients at risk for thrombosis.

4. A client who is withdrawing from alcohol has been prescribed Propranolol. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Increases the risk for seizure activity.
• B. Provides a form of aversion therapy.
• C. Decreases cravings.
• D. Results in mild hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct information the nurse should include in the teaching is that Propranolol decreases cravings for alcohol. Propranolol is used as an adjunct medication during alcohol withdrawal to help reduce the desire for alcohol. Choice A is incorrect as Propranolol does not increase the risk for seizure activity; it can actually be used to prevent alcohol withdrawal seizures. Choice B is also incorrect as Propranolol does not provide aversion therapy. Choice D is incorrect as Propranolol is not known to result in mild hypertension.

5. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Cardiac glycosides
• C. Beta blockers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

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