a nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is a finding that the nurse should report to the provider when caring for a client with heart failure receiving digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypotension, so a low blood pressure reading should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and would not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 60/min is considered normal, but any further decrease should be monitored. A serum potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal range. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is typically considered normal as well.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.

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