a nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood glucose levels.' When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which has a high glucose content, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels closely to prevent hyperglycemia. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice A) is important in other contexts but is not directly related to TPN administration. Measuring intake and output (Choice C) is a general nursing intervention that is relevant for assessing fluid balance but is not specific to TPN administration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice D) may be necessary for clients with hyperglycemia, but this intervention is based on the blood glucose monitoring results and the healthcare provider's orders, not a standard intervention for all clients receiving TPN.

3. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a low albumin level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a pressure ulcer and low albumin level. This intervention can help address the client's poor nutritional status, support wound healing, and specifically target the low albumin level. Increasing protein intake alone (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance. Providing nutritional supplements (Choice C) can be beneficial but consulting with a dietitian for a personalized plan is more effective in this case. Increasing IV fluid intake (Choice D) primarily targets hydration and may not directly address the underlying issue of low albumin and poor nutritional status.

5. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

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