Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a school-age child who has sustained a skull fracture. Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure?

• A. Nausea
• B. Confusion about own name
• C. Rapid pulse
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion, especially about one's own name, is a sign of increased intracranial pressure and should be addressed. Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, but confusion about personal information is a more specific and critical indication that requires immediate attention. Rapid pulse may be a possible response to increased intracranial pressure, but it is not as specific as confusion about own name in this scenario.

3. A nurse manager is updating protocols for belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

• A. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
• B. Attach the restraints to a non-moving part of the bed.
• C. Avoid requesting a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
• D. Remove the client's restraints based on the client's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Document the client's condition every 15 minutes. When using belt restraints, it is crucial to document the client's condition regularly to ensure their safety and well-being. This guideline allows for ongoing assessment of the client's need for restraints and any potential adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed frame but to a non-moving part of the bed to prevent harm in case of bed movement. Choice C is incorrect as PRN (as needed) restraint prescription should not be a routine practice and should only be considered after other interventions have been attempted. Choice D is incorrect as restraints should be removed and reevaluated based on the client's condition, not solely on a fixed time schedule.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?

• A. Monitor skin turgor and check urine output
• B. Assess for jugular venous distention
• C. Auscultate lung sounds and monitor for fever
• D. Monitor for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.

5. What are the complications of untreated pneumonia?

• A. Sepsis and respiratory failure
• B. Heart failure and kidney failure
• C. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance
• D. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sepsis and respiratory failure. Untreated pneumonia can lead to severe complications such as sepsis, which is a life-threatening response to infection, and respiratory failure, where the lungs can no longer provide enough oxygen to the body. Heart failure and kidney failure (choice B) are not direct complications of untreated pneumonia. Pulmonary embolism and electrolyte imbalance (choice C) are also not commonly associated with untreated pneumonia. Liver failure and electrolyte imbalance (choice D) are not typical complications of pneumonia.

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