Nursing Elites

1. What is reperfusion injury?

• A. Healing bone tissue after fracture
• B. Skin wound tunneling and shear
• C. Secondary injury after reestablishing blood flow
• D. Injury after blood transfusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reperfusion injury refers to the secondary injury that occurs after blood flow is reestablished following ischemia. This process leads to tissue damage due to the sudden reintroduction of oxygen and nutrients, causing oxidative stress, inflammation, and cell death. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the normal healing process of bone tissue after a fracture. Choice B is incorrect as it describes specific mechanisms related to skin wounds, not reperfusion injury. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to a different concept, which is adverse reactions or complications that can occur after a blood transfusion, not reperfusion injury.

2. A woman has been prescribed Climara, a transdermal estradiol patch. Which of the following should she be instructed by the nurse regarding the administration?

• A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations.
• B. The application of heat at the patch site will decrease effectiveness and result in pregnancy.
• C. The medication, when exposed to sunlight, can increase the risk of breast cancer.
• D. Exposure of the medication to occasional cold will increase effectiveness with application.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Climara patch delivers estradiol transdermally, and patients should be instructed to avoid prolonged sun exposure at the patch site due to increased plasma concentrations. Sun exposure can accelerate the absorption of the medication, leading to higher systemic levels than intended. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because heat at the patch site does not result in pregnancy but may alter absorption rates, there is no direct link between sunlight exposure and breast cancer risk related to this medication, and exposure to cold does not increase effectiveness of the transdermal patch.

3. During surgery, the anesthesia personnel notice the client is having a steady rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide level. At this time, the nurse anesthetist begins to assess the client for malignant hyperthermia. The initial (priority) assessment for this disorder may include:

• A. measuring serum potassium levels.
• B. monitoring for muscle rigidity.
• C. evaluating renal function.
• D. checking arterial blood gases.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: monitoring for muscle rigidity. Muscle rigidity is a hallmark sign of malignant hyperthermia, a life-threatening condition triggered by certain anesthetics. Monitoring for this sign is critical in the early identification of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial priority assessments for malignant hyperthermia. Measuring serum potassium levels, evaluating renal function, and checking arterial blood gases are not specific initial assessments for malignant hyperthermia and would not aid in its early identification.

4. A male patient with hypogonadism is receiving testosterone therapy. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Increased risk of breast cancer
• B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• C. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
• D. Increased risk of prostate cancer

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial when administering testosterone therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy does not typically lead to an increased risk of breast cancer, liver dysfunction, or prostate cancer.

5. A hospital client is at a high risk of developing bacterial endocarditis. Which of the following prophylactic measures is likely to be most effective?

• A. Avoiding exposure to individuals known to carry the streptococcus bacterium
• B. Daily administration of low-dose corticosteroids
• C. Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure
• D. Routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Prophylactic antimicrobial therapy before any invasive procedure is the most effective measure in preventing bacterial endocarditis in at-risk individuals. This measure helps to reduce the risk of bacterial infection during invasive procedures, which can lead to endocarditis. Choice A is incorrect as avoiding exposure to individuals with streptococcus does not address the primary preventive measure needed. Choice B is incorrect as corticosteroids do not prevent bacterial endocarditis, and daily administration is not the recommended prophylactic measure. Choice D is incorrect as routine vaccinations against meningococcal and pneumococcal infections are important for other conditions but not specifically for preventing bacterial endocarditis.

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