ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient who was frequently homeless over the past several years has begun a drug regimen consisting solely of isoniazid (INH). What is this patient's most likely diagnosis?
- A. Active tuberculosis
- B. Latent tuberculosis
- C. Mycobacterium avium complex
- D. Human immunodeficiency virus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.
2. While assessing a critically ill client in the emergency department, the nurse notes on the cardiac monitor an R-on-T premature ventricular beat that develops into ventricular tachycardia (VT). Immediately, the client became unresponsive. The nurse knows that based on pathophysiologic principles, the most likely cause of the unresponsiveness is:
- A. metabolic acidosis that occurs spontaneously following any dysrhythmias.
- B. interruption of the blood/oxygen supply to the brain.
- C. massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) resulting from increased perfusion.
- D. a blood clot coming from the heart and occluding the carotid arteries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) can disrupt the normal heart function, leading to a decreased cardiac output. This decreased output can interrupt the blood supply to the brain, causing the client to become unresponsive. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is not the most likely cause of unresponsiveness in this scenario. A massive cerebrovascular accident (CVA) (Choice C) would not result from increased perfusion. A blood clot occluding the carotid arteries (Choice D) may lead to a stroke but is not the most likely cause of sudden unresponsiveness in this situation.
3. A nurse is educating a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid walking for long periods to prevent leg pain.
- B. I should inspect my feet daily for any sores or wounds.
- C. I should wear compression stockings to improve circulation.
- D. I should avoid smoking to prevent further damage to my arteries.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Walking is crucial in improving circulation in peripheral artery disease; therefore, the client should not avoid walking for long periods. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements for a client with PAD. Inspecting feet daily helps in early detection of sores or wounds, wearing compression stockings improves circulation, and avoiding smoking helps prevent further damage to arteries in PAD.
4. A patient suffers from dysmenorrhea. Which oral medication will be prescribed that has the ability to provide physiological actions on the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function?
- A. Estrogen
- B. Progestins
- C. Naproxen
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Progestins are prescribed for dysmenorrhea as they help reduce menstrual pain by inhibiting ovulation and decreasing the production of prostaglandins. Estrogen (Choice A) is not typically used alone in dysmenorrhea treatment as it can worsen symptoms. Naproxen (Choice C) and Ibuprofen (Choice D) are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) commonly used to relieve pain associated with dysmenorrhea, but they do not directly affect the neuroendocrine control of ovarian function like progestins do.
5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of bone fractures
- C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- D. Increased risk of mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.
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