a male patient is receiving testosterone therapy what serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pathophysiology Exam 1

1. What serious adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during testosterone therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Testosterone therapy is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient for cardiovascular complications. While monitoring liver function tests (choice B) and bone density (choice D) may be important in some cases, the primary concern during testosterone therapy is the risk of cardiovascular events. Prostate cancer screenings (choice C) are not directly related to testosterone therapy's adverse effects.

2. A 5-year-old male was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which of the following anemias does the nurse suspect the patient has?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hemolytic anemia. Normocytic-normochromic anemia is a type of anemia characterized by normal-sized and normal-colored red blood cells. Hemolytic anemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed prematurely, leading to normocytic-normochromic anemia. Sideroblastic anemia (Choice A) is characterized by ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow. Pernicious anemia (Choice C) is due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Iron deficiency anemia (Choice D) is characterized by microcytic-hypochromic red blood cells.

3. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

4. Which of the following is a cause of edema?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased plasma proteins. Edema can be caused by decreased plasma proteins, which reduce the osmotic pressure that keeps fluid in the blood vessels. Hypotension (choice B) is low blood pressure and is not a direct cause of edema. Dehydration (choice C) involves a lack of body fluid, but it is not a direct cause of edema. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and not a direct cause of edema.

5. A 43-year-old man has tested positive for systemic candidiasis, and the care team has decided on IV fluconazole as a first-line treatment. When administering this medication, the nurse should

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering IV fluconazole, the nurse should avoid administering the drug through a peripheral IV. Fluconazole is known to cause phlebitis and tissue irritation if infused through a peripheral IV line. It is recommended to administer fluconazole through a central venous catheter to reduce the risk of complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to administer the drug with lactated Ringer's, infuse it at a particular rate, or administer prophylactic heparin prior to fluconazole in this scenario.

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