what intervention should be done if continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What intervention should be done if continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps address an air leak in the system, which could compromise its effectiveness. Choice B (Replace the chest tube system) is not the initial step and may be unnecessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening connections. Choice C (Clamp the chest tube) is incorrect as clamping the chest tube could lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the system. Choice D (Continue monitoring the chest tube) is also not the best immediate action to take when continuous bubbling is present, as prompt intervention is needed to prevent complications.

2. What is a typical symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

3. What is an escharotomy and when is it performed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An escharotomy is a surgical incision made to release pressure in a part of the body that has a deep burn and excessive swelling. This procedure is crucial in preventing further damage due to restricted blood flow and compromised circulation. Choice B is incorrect because it describes debridement, which is the removal of dead tissue from wounds. Choice C is incorrect as it does not specifically address the purpose of relieving pressure in burn injuries. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a procedure more related to thoracentesis, which is the removal of excess fluid from the chest, typically the pleural space.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.

5. What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on the ECG. Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Choice B, Elevated ST segments, is not typically seen in hypokalemia but can be a sign of myocardial infarction. Choice C, Widened QRS complex, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia. Choice D, Prominent U waves, is typically associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are considered a more specific and early sign.

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