Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus, what should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Monitor serum albumin levels
• B. Avoid alcohol
• C. Teach the patient to increase fluids
• D. Increase exercise to reduce stress

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid alcohol.' Alcohol consumption can exacerbate dehydration in patients with diabetes insipidus, so it is essential to advise them to avoid alcohol. Monitoring serum albumin levels (choice A) is not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Teaching the patient to increase fluids (choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen the condition by further diluting the urine. Increasing exercise to reduce stress (choice D) is not a primary intervention for managing diabetes insipidus.

2. What medication should be administered first for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?

• A. Albuterol via nebulizer
• B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
• C. Methylprednisolone IV
• D. Aminophylline IV

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction because it quickly opens the airways by relaxing the muscles around the airways. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for prevention rather than immediate relief of symptoms. Methylprednisolone (choice C) and Aminophylline (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing due to an allergic reaction.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible complication of TPN administration?

• A. Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities
• B. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
• C. Weight is the same as the day before
• D. Bilateral posterior lung sounds are diminished

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pitting edema of bilateral lower extremities. Pitting edema can indicate fluid overload, which is a potential complication of TPN administration. Choice B, hypoactive bowel sounds, is more indicative of a gastrointestinal issue rather than a complication of TPN. Choice C, weight remaining the same, is expected to remain stable with proper TPN administration. Choice D, diminished lung sounds, is not directly related to TPN administration and is more suggestive of a respiratory issue.

4. A patient with chronic kidney disease may require dietary restrictions. Which of the following diets should the healthcare provider prescribe?

• A. Low sodium diet
• B. Potassium restricted diet
• C. High phosphorus diet
• D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients with chronic kidney disease often require a potassium-restricted diet to help manage their electrolyte levels. Excessive potassium intake can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. While monitoring sodium intake is also important for these patients, a low sodium diet is not specifically indicated in the question. High phosphorus diet and high protein diet are not recommended for individuals with chronic kidney disease as they can further stress the kidneys and worsen the condition.

5. What symptoms are associated with a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Loss of motor function with nausea
• D. Severe headache and vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A thrombotic stroke presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body due to a clot blocking blood flow to the brain. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke with sudden symptoms like loss of consciousness (Choice B), and from other conditions like migraine, which may present with severe headache and vomiting (Choice D). Nausea (Choice C) is not typically a primary symptom associated with a thrombotic stroke.

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