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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?
- A. Salt substitutes
- B. Foods high in potassium
- C. Foods high in sodium
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.
2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.
3. The client makes which statement about lifestyle changes to reduce the development and progression of coronary artery disease that indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. “I will check my weight regularly for any gain or loss.”
- B. “I’ll make sure to take my high blood pressure medications.”
- C. “I am attending a smoking cessation class.”
- D. “As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client stating, 'As long as I exercise, stress at my job will not bother me,' indicates a misunderstanding of the relationship between exercise and stress management. It is important to clarify that while exercise can help reduce stress, it may not eliminate all stressors, especially those related to work. Further teaching is needed to ensure the client understands the multifactorial approach required to address stress and its impact on coronary artery disease.
4. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?
- A. Lubiprostone
- B. Metoclopramide
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Loperamide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.
5. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Stop the infusion.
- B. Call the provider.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed.
- D. Auscultate breath sounds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.
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