ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 3
1. What causes osteoporosis?
- A. Poor nutrition in infancy
- B. Regularly weight-bearing exercise
- C. Bone loss, frequently during aging
- D. Cerebral palsy and associated disorders
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis is commonly caused by bone loss that occurs with aging, leading to brittle bones. Choice A, poor nutrition in infancy, is not a direct cause of osteoporosis. Choice B, regularly weight-bearing exercise, actually helps in maintaining bone density and strength, reducing the risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, cerebral palsy and associated disorders, is not a common cause of osteoporosis.
2. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?
- A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
- B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
- C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
- D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.
3. A patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct adverse effect to monitor for when a patient is taking testosterone for hypogonadism is an increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy has been associated with an elevated risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring cardiovascular health is crucial during testosterone therapy. The other choices are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not primarily linked to liver dysfunction (choice A), prostate cancer (choice C), or bone fractures (choice D).
4. What important instruction should the nurse provide about taking medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) for a patient with endometriosis?
- A. Take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels.
- B. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Discontinue medroxyprogesterone if side effects occur.
- D. Medroxyprogesterone should be taken once a week to maintain effectiveness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to take the medication at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and effectiveness. This consistency is crucial for achieving therapeutic outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because medroxyprogesterone should be taken at the same time each day, regardless of food intake. Choice C is incorrect because side effects should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly. Choice D is incorrect as medroxyprogesterone is usually taken daily for the prescribed duration.
5. In gout, a man has developed large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows. The phase of gout he is in is:
- A. asymptomatic.
- B. acute flare.
- C. the intercritical period.
- D. chronic gout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The man's presentation of large, hard nodules around his toes and elbows is indicative of tophi formation, which is characteristic of chronic gout. Tophi are deposits of uric acid crystals that can develop over time in untreated or poorly managed gout. During the chronic phase of gout, tophi can form in joints, soft tissues, and organs. Asymptomatic refers to a phase where there are no symptoms present. Acute flare is characterized by sudden and severe joint pain and inflammation. The intercritical period is the time between gout attacks when the patient is symptom-free.
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