ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Exam
1. In a patient with renal failure secondary to an overdose of a nephrotoxic drug, which assessment findings would the nurse recognize as being most suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis?
- A. Frequent infections and low neutrophil levels
- B. Fatigue and increased heart rate
- C. Agitation and changes in cognition
- D. Increased blood pressure and peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Impaired erythropoiesis refers to a decreased production of red blood cells. This can lead to anemia, resulting in symptoms like fatigue and increased heart rate (Choice B). However, the question specifically asks about assessment findings suggestive of impaired erythropoiesis. In this context, frequent infections and low neutrophil levels (Choice A) are more directly related to impaired erythropoiesis due to the impact of anemia on the immune system. Frequent infections are common in anemia due to a compromised immune response, and low neutrophil levels can be seen in conditions of impaired erythropoiesis. Agitation and changes in cognition (Choice C) are more indicative of neurological issues, while increased blood pressure and peripheral edema (Choice D) are commonly associated with renal failure but not specifically related to impaired erythropoiesis.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about preventing long-term complications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
- B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
- C. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.
- D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because checking the feet daily for open sores or wounds is crucial in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. While maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range (choice A) is important in managing diabetes, it does not specifically address long-term complications. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice C) is beneficial for glycemic control but does not directly relate to preventing long-term complications. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important in managing diabetes but is not as directly related to preventing long-term complications as checking for foot wounds.
3. As the primary caregiver for a 5-month-old baby, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of basic needs, which intervention takes the highest priority?
- A. Feeding every four hours
- B. Protection from harm
- C. Providing stimulation
- D. Providing love
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Feeding every four hours. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, physiological needs, such as food, water, and warmth, take the highest priority. Ensuring that the baby is fed regularly is crucial for survival and overall health. Choice B, protection from harm, relates more to safety needs which come after physiological needs. Choice C, providing stimulation, is associated with higher-level needs like belongingness and esteem. Choice D, providing love, corresponds to esteem and self-actualization needs, which are higher in the hierarchy than physiological needs.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
- B. Wear a surgical mask when entering the client's room.
- C. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- D. Place a surgical mask on the client when transporting them.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to place the client in a negative pressure room. This action is necessary to prevent the spread of tuberculosis, as it is transmitted via airborne particles. Placing the client in droplet isolation (choice C) is not sufficient for tuberculosis, as it requires airborne precautions. Wearing a surgical mask (choice B) when entering the client's room may not provide adequate protection against airborne transmission. Placing a surgical mask on the client when transporting them (choice D) does not address the need for environmental controls to contain infectious particles.
5. A male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed finasteride (Proscar). What therapeutic effect is expected from this medication?
- A. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms
- B. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction
- C. Improvement in erectile function
- D. Relief of pain associated with BPH
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms. Finasteride works by reducing the size of the prostate gland, which in turn helps alleviate urinary symptoms such as frequency, urgency, weak stream, and incomplete emptying of the bladder. Choice B is incorrect as while finasteride can improve urine flow indirectly by reducing prostate size, it does not directly increase urine flow. Choice C is incorrect because finasteride is not intended to improve erectile function. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride does not primarily provide relief from pain associated with BPH.
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