ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
- A. confabulation.
- B. delirium.
- C. orientation.
- D. perseveration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.
2. Pain in the lower extremities due to peripheral artery disease usually worsens:
- A. with rest because blood flow increases.
- B. with elevation of the extremity because blood is diverted away.
- C. when the leg is in a dependent position because blood pools.
- D. when the leg is touched or massaged because cytokines are released.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In peripheral artery disease, pain in the lower extremities worsens with the elevation of the extremity because it diverts blood flow away from the affected area, exacerbating the pain. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Resting doesn't increase blood flow, a dependent position doesn't lead to blood pooling in this context, and pain worsening due to touch or massage is not a typical feature of peripheral artery disease.
3. A patient has been prescribed an estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive. The nurse should emphasize that the risk of thrombophlebitis is most likely in patients who:
- A. Are diabetic.
- B. Smoke cigarettes.
- C. Have a history of hypertension.
- D. Are older than 40.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoke cigarettes. Smoking is a significant risk factor for thrombophlebitis, especially when combined with estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Choice A, being diabetic, does not directly increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in this context. Choice C, having a history of hypertension, is not a primary risk factor for thrombophlebitis. Choice D, being older than 40, is not the most likely factor associated with an increased risk of thrombophlebitis in patients taking estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives.
4. Mrs. Jordan is an elderly client diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. She becomes agitated and combative when a nurse approaches to help with morning care. The most appropriate nursing intervention in this situation would be to:
- A. tell the client firmly that it is time to get dressed.
- B. obtain assistance to restrain the client for safety.
- C. remain calm and talk quietly to the client.
- D. call the doctor and request an order for sedation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with an elderly client with Alzheimer’s disease who is agitated and combative, the most appropriate nursing intervention is to remain calm and talk quietly to the client. This approach can help soothe the client and prevent escalating the situation. Choice A is incorrect as being firm may further agitate the client. Choice B is inappropriate as restraining should only be used as a last resort for safety reasons and after other de-escalation techniques have been attempted. Choice D is not the best initial intervention and should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have failed.
5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- B. Increased risk of bone fractures
- C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
- D. Increased risk of mood changes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.
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