ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
- A. confabulation.
- B. delirium.
- C. orientation.
- D. perseveration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.
2. In which of the following patients may the administration of a live vaccine be contraindicated?
- A. Patient with renal insufficiency
- B. Patient with hepatic failure
- C. Patient taking steroid therapy
- D. Patient over the age of 65 years
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The administration of live vaccines may be contraindicated in patients taking steroid therapy. Steroids can suppress the immune system, reducing the effectiveness of live vaccines. Patients with renal insufficiency or hepatic failure can typically receive live vaccines as these conditions are not direct contraindications. Age alone, such as being over 65 years old, is not a contraindication for live vaccines unless there are other specific health considerations. Therefore, the patient taking steroid therapy is the most likely candidate for whom the administration of a live vaccine would be contraindicated.
3. A patient with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene (Evista). What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- B. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
- C. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
- D. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Raloxifene works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This helps in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures in patients with osteoporosis. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone, but rather helps to maintain existing bone mass. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
4. A toddler is displaying signs/symptoms of weakness and muscle atrophy. The pediatric neurologist suspects it may be a lower motor neuron disease called spinal muscular atrophy (SMA). The client's family asks how he got this. The nurse will respond:
- A. This could result from playing in soil and then ingesting bacteria that is now attacking his motor neurons.
- B. No one really knows how this disease is formed. We just know that in time, he may grow out of it.
- C. This is a degenerative disorder that tends to be inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
- D. This is a segmental demyelination disorder that affects all nerve roots and eventually all muscle groups as well.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is an inherited disorder, often autosomal recessive, that affects lower motor neurons. Choice A is incorrect because SMA is not caused by ingesting bacteria from playing in soil. Choice B is incorrect as SMA is not something that a person grows out of. Choice D is incorrect because SMA is not a demyelination disorder that affects nerve roots and muscle groups.
5. A patient began antiretroviral therapy several weeks ago for the treatment of HIV, and he has now presented to the clinic for a scheduled follow-up appointment. He states to the nurse, “I've been pretty good about taking all my pills on time, though it was a bit hit and miss over the holiday weekend.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient's statement?
- A. “Remember that if you miss a dose, you need to take a double dose at the next scheduled time.”
- B. “It's acceptable to miss an occasional dose as long as your symptoms don't worsen, but it's important to strive for consistent adherence.”
- C. “Remember that your antiretroviral drugs will only be effective if you take them consistently and as prescribed.”
- D. “If you're not consistent with taking your medications, you're likely to develop more side effects.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to remind the patient that antiretroviral drugs are most effective when taken consistently and as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because taking a double dose after missing a dose is not recommended, as it can lead to medication toxicity. Choice B is incorrect as it may give the impression that missing doses is acceptable, which can reduce the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice D is incorrect because while consistency is important, the focus should be on treatment effectiveness rather than side effects.
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