ATI RN
Pathophysiology Practice Questions
1. Nurse Isabelle enters the room of a client with a cognitive impairment disorder and asks what day of the week it is, what the date, month, and year are, and where the client is. The nurse is attempting to assess:
- A. confabulation.
- B. delirium.
- C. orientation.
- D. perseveration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "orientation." Nurse Isabelle is assessing the client's orientation by asking questions about time (day, date, month, year), place, and person. This assessment helps determine the client's awareness of their surroundings and situation. Confabulation (choice A) is the unintentional fabrication of details or events to fill in memory gaps and is not being assessed in this scenario. Delirium (choice B) is a state of acute confusion and disorientation, usually with a rapid onset, which is different from assessing orientation. Perseveration (choice D) refers to the persistent repetition of a response, statement, or behavior and is not the focus of the assessment being conducted by Nurse Isabelle in this situation.
2. In a male patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax), what is the expected therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Decreased urinary frequency and urgency
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased hair growth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased urinary frequency and urgency. Tamsulosin is prescribed for patients with BPH to relax the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck. This relaxation helps in relieving the symptoms of BPH, such as decreased urinary flow, frequent urination, and urgency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not increase urinary output but rather improves the flow of urine by relaxing the muscles. Choice C is incorrect as tamsulosin is not primarily used for reducing blood pressure. Choice D is also incorrect as tamsulosin does not promote increased hair growth.
3. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) for erectile dysfunction. What important information should the healthcare provider provide?
- A. This medication can cause sudden hearing loss.
- B. This medication should not be taken more than once a day.
- C. You should avoid taking this medication with high-fat meals.
- D. Avoid taking nitrates while on this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Sildenafil (Viagra) should not be taken with nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because sudden hearing loss is a rare but serious side effect associated with sildenafil, not a common side effect. Choice B is not the most important information related to sildenafil use. While it is generally recommended not to exceed one dose per day, the interaction with nitrates is more critical. Choice C is also important to consider as high-fat meals can delay the onset of action of sildenafil, but it is not as crucial as avoiding nitrates.
4. The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which assessment question posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?
- A. Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?
- B. Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?
- C. Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?
- D. Is there any mold in your home that you know of?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Botulism in infants is often linked to honey consumption. Asking the parents if they have ever given their child any honey or honey-containing products can provide crucial information for the differential diagnosis. This is important because infant botulism is commonly associated with the ingestion of honey contaminated with Clostridium botulinum spores. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant to botulism in infants as they do not directly relate to the typical causes of the condition. Family history of neuromuscular diseases (choice B) may be important for other conditions but not specifically for infant botulism. Direct exposure to chemical cleaning products (choice C) and the presence of mold in the home (choice D) are not typical risk factors for infant botulism.
5. A 1-year-old child will receive her scheduled MMR vaccination shortly. The nurse should teach the child's parents that she may develop what possible adverse effect related to the administration of this vaccine?
- A. Cough and fever
- B. Pallor and listlessness
- C. Serum sickness
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough and fever. After receiving the MMR vaccine, some children may experience mild adverse effects such as a low-grade fever and a mild cough. These symptoms are normal reactions to the vaccine and indicate that the child's immune system is responding appropriately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because pallor and listlessness, serum sickness, nausea, and vomiting are not common adverse effects associated with the MMR vaccine in children.
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