Nursing Elites

1. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?

• A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
• B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
• C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
• D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.

2. How should the nurse prepare a patient who is to receive a Schilling test for pernicious anemia?

• A. Administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time
• B. Measure antigen-antibody immune complexes
• C. Measure serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity
• D. Administer folate and evaluate folate content in a blood serum sample

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. To prepare a patient for a Schilling test for pernicious anemia, the nurse should administer radioactive cobalamin and measure its excretion time. This test is specifically designed to assess the absorption of vitamin B12. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the preparation and procedure of a Schilling test. Measuring antigen-antibody immune complexes, serum ferritin, or total iron-binding capacity, as well as administering folate and evaluating folate content, are not part of the Schilling test protocol.

3. When assessing for potential signs and symptoms of cryptococcosis in a patient with HIV being treated with Amphotericin B, the nurse should prioritize what assessment?

• A. Neurological assessment
• B. Functional assessment
• C. Nutritional assessment
• D. Cardiac assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with cryptococcosis and HIV, neurological assessment should be prioritized because cryptococcosis commonly affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as headache, confusion, and altered mental status. This assessment is crucial in monitoring for any neurological complications and guiding appropriate interventions. Functional assessment focuses on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and is not directly associated with cryptococcosis. Nutritional assessment is important for overall health but is not the priority when assessing for cryptococcosis. Cardiac assessment is not a priority in cryptococcosis as the primary manifestations are related to the central nervous system.

4. A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?

• A. Adaptation
• B. Pathologic calcification
• C. Apoptosis
• D. Necrosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.

5. What should the nurse emphasize regarding the risks associated with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) in a patient with a history of cardiovascular disease?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke.
• B. HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. HRT may improve mood and energy levels.
• D. HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, including heart attack and stroke, particularly in patients with a history of cardiovascular disease. Choice B is incorrect because HRT does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; instead, it may have adverse effects on bone health. Choice C is incorrect as the improvement in mood and energy levels is not a significant risk associated with HRT. Choice D is incorrect because while HRT may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, the question specifically focuses on patients with a history of cardiovascular disease, where the emphasis should be on cardiovascular risks.

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