ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?
- A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
- B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
- C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
- D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.
2. A 9-year-old girl has a diffuse collection of symptoms that are indicative of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control. She also suffers from persistent fluid and electrolyte imbalances. On which aspect of the nervous system listed below would her health care providers focus their diagnostic efforts?
- A. The thalamus
- B. The pituitary
- C. The hypothalamus
- D. The midbrain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hypothalamus. The hypothalamus plays a central role in regulating endocrine and autonomic functions, including fluid and electrolyte balance. In this case, the girl's symptoms of deficits in endocrine and autonomic nervous system control, along with fluid and electrolyte imbalances, point towards dysfunction in the hypothalamus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the thalamus is mainly involved in sensory relay, the pituitary gland regulates various hormones but is controlled by the hypothalamus, and the midbrain is responsible for motor control and arousal, not endocrine or autonomic functions.
3. A 70-year-old man has enjoyed good overall health for all of his adult life, but he has been experiencing urinary frequency and dribbling that has culminated in a diagnosis of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). As a result, the patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When teaching the patient about the potential adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should ensure that he knows about the possibility of
- A. sexual dysfunction.
- B. urethral burning.
- C. kidney stones.
- D. visual disturbances.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect of finasteride (Proscar) that the nurse should educate the patient about is sexual dysfunction. Finasteride is known to cause sexual side effects such as decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation disorders. Urethral burning, kidney stones, and visual disturbances are not commonly associated with finasteride use, making them incorrect choices for this scenario.
4. Mrs. Mendoza is a 75-year-old client who has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and confabulates. The nurse understands that this client:
- A. Denies confusion by being jovial.
- B. Pretends to be someone else.
- C. Rationalizes various behaviors.
- D. Fills in memory gaps with fantasy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Confabulation, a common symptom in dementia, involves filling in memory gaps with fabricated stories rather than intentionally pretending to be someone else (Choice B), denying confusion by being jovial (Choice A), or rationalizing various behaviors (Choice C). Confabulation is not a deliberate act but a memory error that results in the creation of false memories.
5. What long-term risks should the nurse discuss with a patient starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT)?
- A. HRT is associated with increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer, so these risks should be discussed with the patient.
- B. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also increases the risk of osteoporosis.
- C. HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, so patients should undergo regular screening.
- D. HRT decreases the risk of fractures, but it also increases the risk of developing diabetes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When starting on hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the nurse should discuss the increased risks of cardiovascular events and breast cancer with the patient. These risks are important to consider to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect as HRT does not increase the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may help prevent it. Choice C is incorrect as while HRT can increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, regular screening is not the primary focus for discussion. Choice D is incorrect as HRT does not decrease the risk of fractures and is not primarily associated with an increased risk of developing diabetes.
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