ATI RN
Final Exam Pathophysiology
1. What is the etiology and most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis in a 22-year-old female college student?
- A. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids.
- B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins.
- C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment.
- D. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis is characterized by a decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors rather than autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells (Choice A), cerebellar lesions (Choice C), or excess acetylcholinesterase production (Choice D). The most likely treatment for myasthenia gravis involves corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and intravenous immunoglobulins to block the antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors. Intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids are not primary treatments for myasthenia gravis.
2. A patient with breast cancer is prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex). What key point should the nurse include in the patient education?
- A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- B. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
- C. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.
- D. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism." It is crucial for patients to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots while taking tamoxifen. Choice B is incorrect because hot flashes and menopausal symptoms are common side effects of tamoxifen, but they are not the key point to emphasize. Choice C is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are potential side effects of tamoxifen but not the key point for patient education. Choice D is incorrect as tamoxifen does not decrease the risk of osteoporosis; in fact, it may increase the risk of bone loss.
3. A patient is taking a statin for hyperlipidemia. What important instruction should the nurse provide to the patient?
- A. Take the medication at night to avoid muscle pain.
- B. Take the medication in the morning to ensure it works throughout the day.
- C. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication with a high-fat meal to increase absorption.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the patient to take the medication at night to avoid muscle pain. Statins are known to potentially cause muscle pain or weakness; taking the medication at night can help reduce the incidence of these side effects. Option B is incorrect because the timing of statin administration is not related to its effectiveness throughout the day. Option C is a general precaution when taking medications but not the most important instruction specific to statins. Option D is incorrect as taking the medication with a high-fat meal can actually decrease its absorption.
4. A patient has been prescribed clomiphene citrate (Clomid) for infertility. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan about the use of this medication?
- A. Clomiphene is taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
- B. Clomiphene is taken once daily throughout the menstrual cycle.
- C. Clomiphene is taken twice daily for 5 days at the end of the menstrual cycle.
- D. Clomiphene is taken three times daily for 10 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Clomiphene is typically taken daily for 5 days at the beginning of the menstrual cycle to stimulate ovulation. Choice A is the correct answer because it aligns with the standard dosing regimen for clomiphene citrate. Choices B, C, and D provide incorrect information about the dosing schedule for clomiphene, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential side effects. Choice B suggests continuous daily intake, which is not the standard practice for clomiphene. Choice C and D mention different dosing frequencies and timings, which are not in line with the typical protocol for using clomiphene for infertility.
5. A male patient is concerned about the risk of prostate cancer while receiving finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What should the nurse explain about this risk?
- A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- B. Finasteride has no effect on the risk of developing prostate cancer.
- C. Finasteride may increase the risk of developing prostate cancer, so regular screening is important.
- D. Finasteride does not affect the risk of prostate cancer, so regular screening is unnecessary.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Finasteride has been shown to lower the risk of developing prostate cancer. Studies have demonstrated that finasteride can reduce the incidence of prostate cancer. However, it is still recommended to have regular screening to monitor for any potential issues. Choice B is incorrect as finasteride has shown to have a positive effect on reducing prostate cancer risk. Choice C is inaccurate because finasteride decreases, not increases, the risk of prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as regular screening is still necessary despite the risk reduction associated with finasteride.
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