ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What dietary instructions should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase protein intake to 1g/kg/day
- C. Increase sodium intake
- D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders in patients with kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can burden the kidneys. Increasing sodium intake is usually discouraged due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention in kidney disease. Avoiding potassium-rich foods is more relevant in advanced kidney disease stages when potassium levels are high, not in pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease.
2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient admitted with possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Obtain cardiac enzymes
- C. Get IV access
- D. Auscultate heart sounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. This intervention is a priority for a patient with possible acute coronary syndrome because nitroglycerin helps vasodilate coronary arteries, increase blood flow to the heart muscle, relieve chest pain, and reduce cardiac workload. Obtaining cardiac enzymes (choice B) is important for diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not the initial priority. Getting IV access (choice C) is essential for medication administration and fluid resuscitation but is not the priority over administering nitroglycerin. Auscultating heart sounds (choice D) is a routine assessment but does not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and improve blood flow to the heart in acute coronary syndrome.
3. What action should a healthcare provider take if a patient reports cramping during enema administration?
- A. Lower the height of the solution container
- B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
- D. Continue the enema at a slower rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient reports cramping during enema administration, the best action is to lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment helps relieve abdominal cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, making it more comfortable for the patient. Increasing the flow of the solution (choice B) would exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first response to cramping. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (choice D) might not be as effective as lowering the height of the solution container in addressing the cramping.
4. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
5. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and infection
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. Unrelieved pain is a key characteristic, indicating tissue ischemia due to increased pressure within a closed anatomic space. Pallor results from compromised blood flow, and pulselessness indicates severe ischemia requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized redness and swelling, fever and infection, and loss of sensation are not specific signs of compartment syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
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