what lab value should be prioritized for a patient with hiv

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet

1. What lab value should be prioritized for a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. White blood cell count
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 should be prioritized for a patient with HIV. This value is crucial as it indicates severe immunocompromise in HIV-infected individuals. Monitoring CD4 T-cell count helps assess the status of the immune system and guides treatment decisions. Serum albumin levels (choice B) may reflect the patient's nutritional status and overall health but are not as specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice C) and hemoglobin levels (choice D) can be affected by various factors and are not as directly linked to HIV management as the CD4 T-cell count in this context.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A. Early menopause
B. History of falls
C. African American race
D. Obesity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.

3. What is the priority intervention when continuous bubbling is observed in the water seal chamber of a chest tube?

A. Check for an air leak
B. Continue monitoring as it is not normal
C. Replace the chest tube system
D. Tighten the tube connections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for an air leak.' Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Checking for an air leak is crucial to prevent respiratory complications. Choice B is incorrect because continuous bubbling is not normal and requires immediate intervention to address the air leak. Choice C is incorrect as replacing the entire chest tube system is not the initial priority when an air leak is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because tightening tube connections may not address the underlying issue of an air leak and should not be the initial action taken in this situation.

4. What dietary modifications are recommended for a patient with pre-dialysis kidney disease?

A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake to 3 g/day
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Eat three large meals per day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Patients with pre-dialysis kidney disease should limit phosphorus intake to prevent further kidney damage. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended in pre-dialysis kidney disease. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation in advanced kidney disease, not pre-dialysis. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day is not a specific dietary modification for pre-dialysis kidney disease.

5. What ECG changes are expected in hypokalemia?

A. Flattened T waves on ECG
B. Prominent U waves on ECG
C. Widened QRS complexes on ECG
D. ST elevation on ECG

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.