ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with a thrombotic stroke?
- A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
- B. Sudden loss of consciousness
- C. Severe headache and confusion
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected limb
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A thrombotic stroke typically presents with a gradual loss of function on one side of the body. This gradual onset distinguishes it from a hemorrhagic stroke, which often manifests with sudden and severe symptoms like loss of consciousness (choice B), severe headache and confusion (choice C), or loss of sensation in the affected limb (choice D). Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with thrombotic strokes.
2. What should the healthcare provider do first when a patient is admitted with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?
- A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
- B. Get IV access
- C. Auscultate heart sounds
- D. Obtain cardiac enzymes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority intervention when a patient presents with chest pain and suspected acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improve blood flow to the heart, and relieve chest pain. It is crucial to address the pain and potential ischemia promptly to prevent further cardiac tissue damage. Getting IV access, auscultating heart sounds, and obtaining cardiac enzymes are important assessments and interventions, but administering nitroglycerin takes precedence in managing acute coronary syndrome.
3. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Monitor for muscle weakness
- B. Check deep tendon reflexes (DTRs)
- C. Monitor for seizures
- D. Monitor for bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for muscle weakness in a patient with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can lead to muscle weakness due to its effects on neuromuscular function. Checking deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia. Seizures (Choice C) are more commonly associated with low calcium levels rather than low potassium levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is a symptom of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia.
4. What is the first medication to administer for a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for wheezing due to its rapid bronchodilatory effects. Choice B, Cromolyn, is used more for preventing allergic reactions rather than acute relief of wheezing. Choice C, Methylprednisolone, is a steroid used for its anti-inflammatory effects and is not the initial choice for acute relief of wheezing. Choice D, Aminophylline, is a bronchodilator but is not the first-line treatment for wheezing due to allergic reactions.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and is receiving 3% sodium chloride via continuous IV. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the SIADH is resolving?
- A. Urine specific gravity 1.020
- B. Sodium 119 mEq/L
- C. BUN 8 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 8.7 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.020 is within the expected reference range and indicates that the kidneys are appropriately concentrating urine, which is a sign that the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is resolving. A low sodium level (choice B) is associated with SIADH, so a sodium level of 119 mEq/L is not indicative of resolution. BUN (choice C) and calcium levels (choice D) are typically not directly related to SIADH resolution.
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