ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2
1. What are the expected signs in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Fever and infection
- C. Localized redness and swelling
- D. Loss of sensation in the affected area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.
2. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
3. A patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping. What should the nurse do?
- A. Increase the flow of the enema solution
- B. Lower the height of the enema solution container
- C. Remove the enema tubing
- D. Stop the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient who received an enema reports abdominal cramping, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This adjustment can help reduce the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution into the colon, allowing the patient to tolerate the procedure better. Increasing the flow of the solution (Choice A) can exacerbate the cramping. Removing the enema tubing (Choice C) or stopping the procedure (Choice D) may not address the issue and could lead to incomplete treatment.
4. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?
- A. An air leak
- B. A blocked chest tube
- C. Normal chest tube function
- D. Continuous drainage from the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak in the system. This occurs when air is entering the system through a leak, preventing the lung from fully re-expanding. Choice B, a blocked chest tube, is incorrect as a blocked tube would result in a lack of drainage rather than continuous bubbling. Choice C, normal chest tube function, is incorrect as continuous bubbling signifies an issue. Choice D, continuous drainage from the chest tube, is incorrect as bubbling in the water seal chamber specifically indicates an air leak, not just the presence of drainage.
5. What ECG changes are expected in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Prominent U waves
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Tall T waves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are an early indicator of hypokalemia on an ECG. Hypokalemia primarily presents with flattened T waves, not prominent U waves, widened QRS complexes, or tall T waves. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia only in severe cases. Widened QRS complexes are more indicative of hyperkalemia, while tall T waves are seen in hyperkalemia as well.
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