ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet
1. What is the first medication to give to a patient experiencing wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn 20 mg via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone 100 mg IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line treatment for wheezing caused by an allergic reaction due to its rapid action in opening airways. Cromolyn (Choice B) is used for prevention rather than acute treatment. Methylprednisolone (Choice C) and Aminophylline (Choice D) are not the first-line treatments for acute wheezing in allergic reactions.
2. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST elevation
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Widened QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.
3. What are the expected findings in a patient experiencing hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves on an ECG
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves on an ECG. Hypokalemia is characterized by flattened T waves on an ECG, which is an early indicator of low potassium levels. Elevated ST segments (Choice B) are associated with conditions like myocardial infarction, not hypokalemia. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are typically seen in hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Bradycardia (Choice D) can be a manifestation of severe hypokalemia but is not as specific as flattened T waves on an ECG.
4. What dietary recommendations should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Increase protein intake
- D. Increase potassium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can lead to complications in such patients. Increasing sodium intake (Choice B) is generally not recommended due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. While protein is essential, increasing protein intake (Choice C) in kidney disease can be harmful as it can lead to increased waste products that the kidneys may struggle to excrete. Increasing potassium intake (Choice D) is not advisable as well, as patients with kidney disease may already have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
5. A nurse is planning care for a patient diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. What should be included in the care plan?
- A. Monitor serum albumin levels
- B. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- C. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
- D. Teach the patient to avoid alcohol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum albumin levels. In patients with diabetes insipidus, monitoring serum albumin levels is essential to assess for dehydration and nutritional deficits. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to managing diabetes insipidus. Restricting protein intake, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching the patient to avoid alcohol are interventions that may be relevant for other medical conditions but are not specific to addressing the needs of a patient with diabetes insipidus.
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