Nursing Elites

1. What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?

• A. Restlessness, irritability, and confusion
• B. Sudden onset of seizures
• C. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response
• D. Loss of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Restlessness, irritability, and confusion are early signs of increased intracranial pressure (IICP). These signs indicate that the brain is starting to experience pressure, often due to conditions such as trauma, tumors, or hemorrhage. Sudden onset of seizures (choice B) is not typically an early sign of IICP but can occur later as the pressure increases. Decreased heart rate and pupillary response (choice C) are more indicative of late-stage IICP as the brainstem becomes compromised. Loss of consciousness (choice D) is a late sign of IICP when the pressure has significantly increased and is causing significant brain dysfunction.

2. Which ECG change is associated with hyperkalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. Prominent U waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Widened QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic ECG change seen in hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to T wave abnormalities. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia. Elevated ST segments are more indicative of myocardial infarction or pericarditis. Widened QRS complexes are commonly associated with conditions like bundle branch blocks or certain toxicities.

3. What is the correct action when a patient reports cramping during enema administration?

• A. Lower the height of the solution container
• B. Increase the flow of the enema solution
• C. Stop the procedure and remove the tubing
• D. Continue the enema at a slower rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient reports cramping during enema administration is to lower the height of the solution container. Lowering the height reduces the pressure and speed of the solution entering the rectum, alleviating cramping. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can worsen the discomfort. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there are severe complications. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the immediate cramping issue and could still cause discomfort to the patient.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig's sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client's toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client's voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig's sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding suggests meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig's sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, Choice C refers to coordination deficits, and Choice D indicates neck pain and stiffness, which are not related to Kernig's sign.

5. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Consume liquids with meals
• C. Increase fluid intake with meals
• D. Eat large meals before bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

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