Nursing Elites

1. Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery?

• A. Pulmonary valve
• B. Aortic valve
• C. Tricuspid valve
• D. Mitral valve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Pulmonary valve. The Pulmonary valve prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle from the pulmonary artery after it has been ejected. The Aortic valve (choice B) prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle. The Tricuspid valve (choice C) prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium from the right ventricle. The Mitral valve (choice D) prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.

2. What term refers to the degree of myocardial fiber stretch before contraction, related to the volume of blood distending the ventricles at the end of diastole, and determined by the amount of venous return?

• A. Preload
• B. Afterload
• C. Contractility
• D. Ejection fraction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preload. Preload is the degree of myocardial fiber stretch before contraction, influenced by the volume of blood returning to the heart. This parameter is related to the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. Choice B, Afterload, refers to the pressure or resistance that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood. Choice C, Contractility, is the intrinsic ability of the heart muscle to contract. Choice D, Ejection fraction, is the percentage of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each contraction.

3. What term describes a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat and requires multiple pillows to sleep comfortably?

• A. Orthopnea
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Tachypnea
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a condition where a person finds it hard to breathe while lying flat and needs to use multiple pillows to sleep comfortably. This position helps relieve the discomfort by allowing better lung expansion. Choice B, Dyspnea, refers to difficulty breathing in general, not specifically related to lying flat. Choice C, Tachypnea, is rapid breathing and is not directly related to difficulty breathing while lying down. Choice D, Bradypnea, is slow breathing and does not describe the condition of having trouble breathing when lying flat.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

• A. PT/INR
• B. aPTT
• C. Platelet count
• D. Hemoglobin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) is complaining of muscle cramps. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Muscle cramps are a common symptom of hypokalemia, an electrolyte imbalance characterized by low potassium levels. Furosemide, a loop diuretic like Lasix, can lead to potassium loss in the body, contributing to hypokalemia. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as it refers to high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as it pertains to low sodium levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as it relates to low calcium levels, not typically associated with muscle cramps in the context of furosemide use.

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