Nursing Elites

1. Which condition involves the tearing of the aorta, leading to severe pain and internal bleeding?

• A. Aortic dissection
• B. Aneurysm
• C. Stroke
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Aortic dissection. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition where the inner layer of the aorta tears, causing severe chest or back pain and internal bleeding, requiring immediate medical attention. Choice B, aneurysm, involves a bulging or weakening of a blood vessel wall, which is different from a tear in the aorta. Choices C and D, stroke and myocardial infarction, do not directly involve the tearing of the aorta and are distinct conditions.

2. For what reason might the nurse be given an order to administer milrinone (Primacor)?

• A. For congestive heart failure
• B. For hypertension
• C. For cardiac arrhythmias
• D. For bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Milrinone is commonly prescribed for congestive heart failure to help improve cardiac function and alleviate symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as milrinone is not typically used for hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, or bradycardia. It is specifically indicated for congestive heart failure for short-term management.

3. The nurse is caring for a client on warfarin with an INR of 1.8. What is the most appropriate action?

• A. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• B. Administer vitamin K.
• C. Hold the warfarin and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Monitor the client’s INR closely.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating the need for monitoring closely to ensure that the INR levels reach the desired therapeutic range. Increasing the dose of warfarin (Choice A) without proper monitoring may lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Administering vitamin K (Choice B) is not typically recommended unless the client is experiencing major bleeding or requires rapid reversal of warfarin's effects. Holding the warfarin and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice C) may be necessary in certain situations, but the immediate action in this case should be to monitor the client's INR closely to guide further management.

4. Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the rest of the body?

• A. Left atrium
• B. Right atrium
• C. Left ventricle
• D. Right ventricle

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the left ventricle. It receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the rest of the body through the aorta. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs, the right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body, and the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

5. The client on furosemide (Lasix) has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Hold the furosemide and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Continue the current dose of furosemide.
• D. Administer Digibind.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a potassium supplement. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action is to address the low potassium level by administering a potassium supplement. Holding the furosemide (Choice B) may be necessary in the long term to prevent further potassium loss, but the immediate need is to correct the low potassium level. Continuing the current dose of furosemide (Choice C) without addressing the low potassium level can worsen hypokalemia. Administering Digibind (Choice D) is not indicated for low potassium levels; Digibind is used to treat digoxin toxicity.

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