ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Practice Exam
1. What is the condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall?
- A. Pneumothorax
- B. Pleural effusion
- C. Pulmonary fibrosis
- D. Lung cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pneumothorax is the correct answer. It is the collapse of a lung due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall. This condition often requires emergency treatment. Choice B, Pleural effusion, is the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lung, not air. Choice C, Pulmonary fibrosis, is a lung disease characterized by scarring and thickening of lung tissue, not related to lung collapse. Choice D, Lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lung, not directly causing lung collapse.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Potassium level
- B. INR
- C. BUN
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate 68/min.
- B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Vision changes.
- D. Respiratory rate 18/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
4. How do defense mechanisms contribute to psychopathology?
- A. They do not contribute to psychopathology as they are healthy coping mechanisms.
- B. They contribute to psychopathology by allowing individuals to avoid confronting painful realities.
- C. Defense mechanisms have no connection to psychopathology.
- D. Defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies that can lead to the development of psychopathology.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Defense mechanisms contribute to psychopathology by allowing individuals to avoid confronting painful realities. This avoidance can prevent individuals from dealing with underlying issues, leading to the development or exacerbation of psychopathological conditions. Choice A is incorrect because while defense mechanisms may serve as coping mechanisms, they can also contribute to psychopathology when used excessively or inappropriately. Choice C is incorrect as defense mechanisms are indeed connected to psychopathology. Choice D is incorrect because defense mechanisms, when maladaptive, can contribute to psychopathology rather than being considered healthy coping strategies.
5. What is the expected ECG finding in a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Elevated ST segments
- C. Widened QRS complexes
- D. Widened QRS complexes on the ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in serum potassium levels, which can lead to various ECG changes. One of the classic ECG findings associated with hypokalemia is the presence of flattened T waves. These T wave abnormalities are typically seen in multiple leads. Choice B, elevated ST segments, is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia. Choice C, widened QRS complexes, is more commonly associated with hyperkalemia rather than hypokalemia. Choice D is redundant and not a standard way of describing ECG findings.
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