Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?

• A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
• D. Imipramine (Tofranil)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.

2. What symptom would most likely be associated with late dumping syndrome?

• A. abdominal cramps
• B. nausea
• C. diarrhea
• D. confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is the most likely symptom associated with late dumping syndrome. Late dumping syndrome occurs when blood sugar levels drop rapidly after eating due to rapid gastric emptying. While abdominal cramps, nausea, and diarrhea can occur with dumping syndrome, confusion is specifically linked to late dumping syndrome due to hypoglycemia.

3. When is infertility said to exist?

• A. When a woman has no uterus
• B. When a woman has no children
• C. When a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year without success
• D. When a couple has desired a child for 6 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infertility is defined as not being able to get pregnant despite having frequent, unprotected sex for at least a year for most couples. Therefore, the correct answer is C. A, B, and D are incorrect. While having no uterus (choice A) may result in infertility, it is not the sole determining factor. Similarly, not having children (choice B) does not automatically indicate infertility. Lastly, the time frame of 6 months (choice D) is not sufficient to determine infertility; typically, a year of trying without success is required for such a diagnosis.

4. A client receiving continuous enteral tube feeding reports cramping and abdominal distention. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Check for gastric residual.
• B. Apply low intermittent suction.
• C. Increase the rate of the feeding.
• D. Request a higher-fat formula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on continuous enteral tube feeding experiences cramping and abdominal distention, the nurse should check for gastric residual. This assessment helps determine if the client is tolerating the feeding well or if there is a potential issue such as feeding intolerance. Applying low intermittent suction, increasing the feeding rate, or requesting a higher-fat formula are not appropriate actions for addressing the reported symptoms and may exacerbate the client's discomfort or lead to further complications.

5. A nurse is planning teaching for the parents of a toddler who follows a vegetarian diet. The nurse should plan to include which of the following foods as the best source of dietary protein for the child?

• A. Soy milk
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Dried beans
• D. Whole grains

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dried beans are the best source of dietary protein for a toddler following a vegetarian diet. They are rich in protein and other essential nutrients. Soy milk, while a good source of protein, may not provide as much protein density as dried beans. Peanut butter is a good source of protein but may not be as protein-dense as dried beans. Whole grains are not as high in protein content compared to dried beans, making them a less optimal choice for meeting the toddler's protein needs.

Similar Questions