ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019
1. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?
- A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
- B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
- D. Imipramine (Tofranil)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.
2. Which client is most likely to need regular injections of vitamin B12?
- A. The client with malabsorption syndrome.
- B. The client following a vegan eating pattern.
- C. The client whose stomach does not produce intrinsic factors.
- D. The client with alcoholism.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client whose stomach does not produce intrinsic factors is most likely to need regular injections of vitamin B12. Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12. Without intrinsic factor, the client cannot absorb vitamin B12 from food, necessitating the need for regular injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly impact the production of intrinsic factors in the stomach, so they are less likely to result in the need for vitamin B12 injections.
3. Health practitioners evaluate disease progression in HIV-infected patients by measuring the concentrations of helper T cells and circulating virus, called _____.
- A. cross resistance
- B. the immune response
- C. acquired resistance
- D. the viral load
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The viral load is the measure of the amount of circulating virus in the blood and is used to evaluate the progression of HIV infection.
4. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:
- A. Percussion uses only one hand, while vibration uses both hands
- B. Percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms, while vibration gently shakes secretions loose
- C. In both percussion and vibration, the hands are not on top of each other, and hand action is not in tune with the client's breath
- D. Percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chest percussion involves the use of rhythmic tapping to dislodge mucus from the lungs, facilitating its movement toward the larger airways where it can be expelled. This technique is particularly important in conditions where mucus retention is a significant risk factor for infection. The key difference between chest percussion and vibration is that percussion involves slapping the chest to loosen secretions, while vibration involves shaking the secretions along with the inhalation, aiding in moving the loosened secretions upwards for easier removal. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe the main difference between chest percussion and vibration, making them incorrect.
5. The PEM in which children ages 18-24 months display edema of the extremities, torso, and face, fatty liver, sparse yellow hair, and receive adequate kilocalories but not enough high-quality proteins is called?
- A. Marasmus
- B. Kwashiorkor
- C. Anemia
- D. Noma
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe malnutrition characterized by edema, fatty liver, and other symptoms, typically resulting from inadequate protein intake despite adequate calorie intake.
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