Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant drug?

• A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
• B. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• C. Sertraline (Zoloft)
• D. Imipramine (Tofranil)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imipramine (Tofranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant drug. This class of medications is used to treat depression, and they work by increasing the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that help lift mood. On the other hand, Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), and Sertraline (Zoloft) is also an SSRI. Therefore, they are not classified as tricyclic antidepressants.

2. While on Bryant’s traction, which of these observations of Graciela and her traction apparatus would indicate a decrease in the effectiveness of her traction?

• A. Graciela’s buttocks are resting on the bed.
• B. The traction weights are hanging 10 inches above the floor.
• C. Graciela’s legs are suspended at a 90 degree angle to her trunk.
• D. The traction ropes move freely through the pulley.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

3. A nurse is teaching a client about iron-rich foods. Which food is the best source of heme iron?

• A. Spinach
• B. Lentils
• C. Beef liver
• D. Tofu

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Heme iron, found in animal products like beef liver, is more easily absorbed than non-heme iron from plant sources.

4. What is the most likely complication for a client receiving TPN who suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis?

• A. Fluid volume overload
• B. Sepsis
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypoglycemia. When a client receiving TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, and diaphoresis, it is indicative of hypoglycemia. TPN provides a high concentration of glucose, and if it is abruptly stopped or the infusion rate is reduced, it can lead to hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with the symptoms described in the scenario. Fluid volume overload typically presents with edema and hypertension, sepsis with fever and increased heart rate, and hyperglycemia with polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision.

5. Obsessive compulsive disorder is classified under:

• A. Psychotic disorders
• B. Neurotic disorders
• C. Major depressive disorder
• D. Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Understanding the underlying pathology and therapeutic techniques ensures that nursing care is not only reactive but also preventative, reducing the risk of complications.

Similar Questions